Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
213 comments Page 9 of 22.
Mahendra sharma said:
1 decade ago
On selling of 6 toffee, profit is 1 toffee. What is the percentage profit ?
Dadasaheb said:
1 decade ago
6 toffees for 1 Rs.
So the C.P. of 1 toffee=1/6 Rs.
Gain%=(gain*100)/C.P.
Now given gain%=20.
So,
20=(gain*100)/(1/6)
20*(1/6)=(gain*100).
20/6=gain*100
10/3=gain*100
10/300=gain
1/30=gain.
Now,
Gain=S.P.-C.P
1/30=S.P.-1/6
1/30+1/6=S.P.
(1+5)/30=S.P.
1/5=S.P.
S.P.=1/5 R.S.
Therefore,
S.P. of 5 toffees is 1 Rs.
So Answer is 5 toffees.
So the C.P. of 1 toffee=1/6 Rs.
Gain%=(gain*100)/C.P.
Now given gain%=20.
So,
20=(gain*100)/(1/6)
20*(1/6)=(gain*100).
20/6=gain*100
10/3=gain*100
10/300=gain
1/30=gain.
Now,
Gain=S.P.-C.P
1/30=S.P.-1/6
1/30+1/6=S.P.
(1+5)/30=S.P.
1/5=S.P.
S.P.=1/5 R.S.
Therefore,
S.P. of 5 toffees is 1 Rs.
So Answer is 5 toffees.
Damodar Narayan said:
1 decade ago
RS. 1 -------> 6 TOFFEES.
RS. 10 -------> 60.
20% 0F 10 -------> 20% OF 60.
2 -------> 12.
12 * 5 = 60 i.e for a rupee he sell 5 Toffees to gain 20%.
Similarly A vendor bought toffees at 3 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 50%?
RS. 1 -------> 3 TOFFEES.
RS. 10 -------> 30.
50% 0F 10 -------> 50% OF 30.
5 -------> 15.
15 * 2 = 30 i.e for a rupee he sell 2 Toffees to gain 50%.
RS. 10 -------> 60.
20% 0F 10 -------> 20% OF 60.
2 -------> 12.
12 * 5 = 60 i.e for a rupee he sell 5 Toffees to gain 20%.
Similarly A vendor bought toffees at 3 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 50%?
RS. 1 -------> 3 TOFFEES.
RS. 10 -------> 30.
50% 0F 10 -------> 50% OF 30.
5 -------> 15.
15 * 2 = 30 i.e for a rupee he sell 2 Toffees to gain 50%.
Muruga said:
1 decade ago
Hi, selling price of 6 toffees = 6/5. OK. And then next step I can't understood help me.
Roji said:
1 decade ago
Friends I solved in this manner:
Vendor bought at 6 for a rupee i.e.,6 c.p = 1Rs.
=>1 c.p = 1/6 Rs.
Given as, he must sell to gain 20% i.e., s.p = 120% of c.p.
=>(120/100)*(1/6).
=>1/5.
i.e., for 1 Rs, he bought 5 toffees.
Vendor bought at 6 for a rupee i.e.,6 c.p = 1Rs.
=>1 c.p = 1/6 Rs.
Given as, he must sell to gain 20% i.e., s.p = 120% of c.p.
=>(120/100)*(1/6).
=>1/5.
i.e., for 1 Rs, he bought 5 toffees.
Abhinavsinghrajput said:
1 decade ago
Here is a simple explanation.
Given:
For Rs.1 = 6 toffees.
After profit of 20%.
For Rs 1.2 = 6 toffees
Let for rs.1 = x toffees
Cross multiply,
1.2x = 6.
Which gives x=5 :).
Given:
For Rs.1 = 6 toffees.
After profit of 20%.
For Rs 1.2 = 6 toffees
Let for rs.1 = x toffees
Cross multiply,
1.2x = 6.
Which gives x=5 :).
Vasavi kotha said:
1 decade ago
In Question they didn't mention profit is 20%. Then how everyone telling profit is 20%. Please answer my question. And explain the solution in another method if possible?
Rabia said:
1 decade ago
Let x be taken as 1 rupee :
C.P of 6 toffees = x.
S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of x.
S.P of 6 = 6/5x.
Now 6 * 5/6 = x.
5 = x.
C.P of 6 toffees = x.
S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of x.
S.P of 6 = 6/5x.
Now 6 * 5/6 = x.
5 = x.
Lavanya said:
1 decade ago
Easy way:
Formula:- p% = p*100/c.p.
20 = p*100/1.
p = 20/100 = 1/5.
i.e for rs.1 5 toffees.
Formula:- p% = p*100/c.p.
20 = p*100/1.
p = 20/100 = 1/5.
i.e for rs.1 5 toffees.
Raja ab said:
1 decade ago
It is simple the 20 % profit on 6 toffees 6*20/100 = 6/5 very simple.
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