Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
                   
                                       
                                5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
 
                                    Answer: Option
                                                    Explanation:
                                                C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 | 
| 5 | 
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. | 
| 5 | 
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  | 6 x | 5 |  | = 5. | 
| 6 | 
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 10 of 22.
                
                        Preeti said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                See.. 
C.P of 6 toffees = Rs 1,
Profit=20%,
S.P = (1+P%)*C.P.
= (1+20/100)*1 = (120/100)*1 =1.2*1 1.2.
If Rs 1.2 is the S.P of the toffee = 6.
So, Rs 1 is the S.P of the toffee = 6/1.2 = 60/12 = 5 answer.
                C.P of 6 toffees = Rs 1,
Profit=20%,
S.P = (1+P%)*C.P.
= (1+20/100)*1 = (120/100)*1 =1.2*1 1.2.
If Rs 1.2 is the S.P of the toffee = 6.
So, Rs 1 is the S.P of the toffee = 6/1.2 = 60/12 = 5 answer.
                        Neha said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                This is very simple solution.    
((6-x)/x)*100=20 then x=5.
For articles we have to take selling articles(x) as base for profit percentage.
                ((6-x)/x)*100=20 then x=5.
For articles we have to take selling articles(x) as base for profit percentage.
                        Nidhi katiyar said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                Cost price of 1 toffee is 1/6.
Now at 100 --- 1/6.
Then at 120 ---- ?.
  
120*1/6 = 20/100 = 1/5.
I.e. it means selling price of 1 toffee is 1/5.
1 rupee for 5 toffees.
                Now at 100 --- 1/6.
Then at 120 ---- ?.
120*1/6 = 20/100 = 1/5.
I.e. it means selling price of 1 toffee is 1/5.
1 rupee for 5 toffees.
                        Luna said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                C.P of 6 toffee = Re 1.
S.P of 6 toffee = 120% of Re 1 = 1.2.
S.P of 1 toffee = 6/1.2 = 5.
                S.P of 6 toffee = 120% of Re 1 = 1.2.
S.P of 1 toffee = 6/1.2 = 5.
                        Shiv said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                Guys it's so simple Just read the question carefully you'll get the answer easily.
                
                        Mahendra chozhan said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                You can go from the answer itself.
Option D - It can't be because it is already given that he sold 6 toffees for 1 rupee. So if he sells 6 toffees for 1 rupee he won't have any profit. So its not the answer.
Option B - If he sells four toffees for 1 rupee then cost of 1 toffee is 1/4=0.25, therefore 6 toffees will make 1.25rs. But it is given that 20 % profit. So it should be 1.20rs only. So its not the answer.
Option A - If he sells 3 toffees for 1 rupee then other three he'll sell for another one rupee, which gives him 100% profit. So its not the answer.
Option C - Obviously this should be the answer.
                Option D - It can't be because it is already given that he sold 6 toffees for 1 rupee. So if he sells 6 toffees for 1 rupee he won't have any profit. So its not the answer.
Option B - If he sells four toffees for 1 rupee then cost of 1 toffee is 1/4=0.25, therefore 6 toffees will make 1.25rs. But it is given that 20 % profit. So it should be 1.20rs only. So its not the answer.
Option A - If he sells 3 toffees for 1 rupee then other three he'll sell for another one rupee, which gives him 100% profit. So its not the answer.
Option C - Obviously this should be the answer.
                        Rohit said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                What is the gain in this question?
                
                        Debolina roy said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                How 6*5/6 has come?
                
                        Rbrana said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                CP of 6 toffees  = 1 Rs;
Means
CP of 6 toffees = 100 paise;
If we sell 6 toffees in 120 paise, We will get 20% profit in these 6 toffees,
Means we'll shell 6 toffees in 1.2Rs to get 20% profit.
Here,
1.2rs -----> 6.
1rs -------> 6/1.2 = 5.
                Means
CP of 6 toffees = 100 paise;
If we sell 6 toffees in 120 paise, We will get 20% profit in these 6 toffees,
Means we'll shell 6 toffees in 1.2Rs to get 20% profit.
Here,
1.2rs -----> 6.
1rs -------> 6/1.2 = 5.
                        Javid Mir said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                C.P= 1.
Gain%=20.
We know, Gain%=Gain*100/C.P,
20=gain*100/1,
Or, gain=20/100,
Gain=1/5.
But gain=S.P-C.P.
Or S.P=gain+C.P.
S.P=1/5+1.
S.P=6/5 Rs.
i.e. We have to sold 6 No. for S.P 6/5.
But since we have to calculate how many we have to sell for Rs.1.
Therefore, for Rs.6/5 we will sold = 6 toffees.
For Rs.1 we will sold = 6/6/5.
Or 6x5/6=5 answer.
                Gain%=20.
We know, Gain%=Gain*100/C.P,
20=gain*100/1,
Or, gain=20/100,
Gain=1/5.
But gain=S.P-C.P.
Or S.P=gain+C.P.
S.P=1/5+1.
S.P=6/5 Rs.
i.e. We have to sold 6 No. for S.P 6/5.
But since we have to calculate how many we have to sell for Rs.1.
Therefore, for Rs.6/5 we will sold = 6 toffees.
For Rs.1 we will sold = 6/6/5.
Or 6x5/6=5 answer.
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