Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
5 |
For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
5 |
For Re. 1, toffees sold = | ![]() |
6 x | 5 | ![]() |
= 5. |
6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 1 of 22.
Nikunj Sahni said:
8 years ago
I have most simple solution, I hope you'll love it.
If you've selling some toffees at 1 Rs and You're getting 20% profit so you must have purchased those toffees at amount < 1. Let You've purchased those toffees for X Rs
That why for profit % , we will write equation.
(SP - CP) / CP * 100 = Profit%.
(1-X)/X*100 = 20.
(1-X)/X = 20/100 --> 100 - 100X = 20X ---> 120X = 100 ---> X =100/120 = 5/6 Rs
It means that you've purchased some toffees for 6/5 Rs and you're selling same toffees for 1 Rs and you're getting 20% Profit.
So last step would be finding toffees we brought at 6/5 Rs that would be the final solution.
In 1 Rs we brought --- 6 Toffees.
So in 5/6 Rs we brought -- 6*(5/6) Toffees or 5 Toffees.
So Ans = 5 Toffees.
If you've selling some toffees at 1 Rs and You're getting 20% profit so you must have purchased those toffees at amount < 1. Let You've purchased those toffees for X Rs
That why for profit % , we will write equation.
(SP - CP) / CP * 100 = Profit%.
(1-X)/X*100 = 20.
(1-X)/X = 20/100 --> 100 - 100X = 20X ---> 120X = 100 ---> X =100/120 = 5/6 Rs
It means that you've purchased some toffees for 6/5 Rs and you're selling same toffees for 1 Rs and you're getting 20% Profit.
So last step would be finding toffees we brought at 6/5 Rs that would be the final solution.
In 1 Rs we brought --- 6 Toffees.
So in 5/6 Rs we brought -- 6*(5/6) Toffees or 5 Toffees.
So Ans = 5 Toffees.
(2)
Mahendra chozhan said:
1 decade ago
You can go from the answer itself.
Option D - It can't be because it is already given that he sold 6 toffees for 1 rupee. So if he sells 6 toffees for 1 rupee he won't have any profit. So its not the answer.
Option B - If he sells four toffees for 1 rupee then cost of 1 toffee is 1/4=0.25, therefore 6 toffees will make 1.25rs. But it is given that 20 % profit. So it should be 1.20rs only. So its not the answer.
Option A - If he sells 3 toffees for 1 rupee then other three he'll sell for another one rupee, which gives him 100% profit. So its not the answer.
Option C - Obviously this should be the answer.
Option D - It can't be because it is already given that he sold 6 toffees for 1 rupee. So if he sells 6 toffees for 1 rupee he won't have any profit. So its not the answer.
Option B - If he sells four toffees for 1 rupee then cost of 1 toffee is 1/4=0.25, therefore 6 toffees will make 1.25rs. But it is given that 20 % profit. So it should be 1.20rs only. So its not the answer.
Option A - If he sells 3 toffees for 1 rupee then other three he'll sell for another one rupee, which gives him 100% profit. So its not the answer.
Option C - Obviously this should be the answer.
Pradipsinh hada said:
1 decade ago
I wonder no one argued for answer 6!
See salesmen bought toffee at 100 paise @ 16.67 paise each.
For gaining 20% he must get 120 paise or the toffee worth 20 paise after getting his C.P.
If he sell 5 toffee @ 100 paise, then he have only one toffee which worth 16.67 paise as he bought, i.e 16.67% profit, not 20%.
How can we value a toffee of 20 paise unless he sell it? He didn't sell last toffee for 20 paise, so he didn't gain 20 paise. So the one toffee left worth 16.67. Thus the profit is 16.67 paise i.e. 16.67%.
If and only if he sell all 6 toffees in 120 paise, he can gain 20% toffee.
See salesmen bought toffee at 100 paise @ 16.67 paise each.
For gaining 20% he must get 120 paise or the toffee worth 20 paise after getting his C.P.
If he sell 5 toffee @ 100 paise, then he have only one toffee which worth 16.67 paise as he bought, i.e 16.67% profit, not 20%.
How can we value a toffee of 20 paise unless he sell it? He didn't sell last toffee for 20 paise, so he didn't gain 20 paise. So the one toffee left worth 16.67. Thus the profit is 16.67 paise i.e. 16.67%.
If and only if he sell all 6 toffees in 120 paise, he can gain 20% toffee.
Vishal said:
9 years ago
Think logically for these sums.
You have 6 toffees for 1 Re.
Assume if he sells 3 toffees for 1 re his gain is 50%.
In this question, he needs 20% gain.
If he sells 5 toffies his gain will be 20%.
(if you still have doubt how he got 20% for 5 toffies).
Assume 6 toffies for 1 re=120% (this is total).
The Same manner see.
If he sells 1 toffee for 1 re his gains is 100%.
2 toffee for 1 re = 80%.
3toffee for 1 re = 60%.
4toffee for 1 re = 40%.
5toffee for 1re = 20%.
The more he sells for same amount gain reduce, the lesser no of toffees he sells for 1 re the gain increase.
You have 6 toffees for 1 Re.
Assume if he sells 3 toffees for 1 re his gain is 50%.
In this question, he needs 20% gain.
If he sells 5 toffies his gain will be 20%.
(if you still have doubt how he got 20% for 5 toffies).
Assume 6 toffies for 1 re=120% (this is total).
The Same manner see.
If he sells 1 toffee for 1 re his gains is 100%.
2 toffee for 1 re = 80%.
3toffee for 1 re = 60%.
4toffee for 1 re = 40%.
5toffee for 1re = 20%.
The more he sells for same amount gain reduce, the lesser no of toffees he sells for 1 re the gain increase.
(3)
Mgnv prasad said:
9 years ago
6 tofees - Rs. 1.
C.p of 1 tofee - Rs1/6.
Profit = 20%.
C.p/100 = S.p/120.
1/(6 * 100) = S.p/120.
S.p = 5.
Note: Assuming c.p as 100 and profit is 20 i.e s.p = 120.
C.p of 1 tofee - Rs1/6.
Profit = 20%.
C.p/100 = S.p/120.
1/(6 * 100) = S.p/120.
S.p = 5.
Note: Assuming c.p as 100 and profit is 20 i.e s.p = 120.
Rajkumar said:
1 decade ago
Its simple
lets assume we have 6 apples and we need to distribute each apple to a person.
in case we took one apple from that
then we can able to distribute only to 5 persons.
in the same way
1re ------> 6 toffees
have to gain 20%.
0.2rs(20paise) is the 20% from 1re
take that 0.2 for urself that is ur gain
so we can sell only for 0.8 rs in the place of 1 re
so
for 1re - - - - -> 6 toffees
for 0.8 rs - - - -> ?
(0.8*6)/1 = 4.8 = 5(round it off to nearest integer). this method is applicable to all kinda problems like this
lets assume we have 6 apples and we need to distribute each apple to a person.
in case we took one apple from that
then we can able to distribute only to 5 persons.
in the same way
1re ------> 6 toffees
have to gain 20%.
0.2rs(20paise) is the 20% from 1re
take that 0.2 for urself that is ur gain
so we can sell only for 0.8 rs in the place of 1 re
so
for 1re - - - - -> 6 toffees
for 0.8 rs - - - -> ?
(0.8*6)/1 = 4.8 = 5(round it off to nearest integer). this method is applicable to all kinda problems like this
M.V.KRISHNA/Palvoncha said:
1 decade ago
CP of 6 Toffees = Re.1 = 100ps.
Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).
Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.
We know SP=CP+P.
SP = 100+20 =120.
It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.
Now from question:
For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.
i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?
By Cross multiplying we get,
120*? = 100*6
? = 600/120
? = 5
So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.
Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).
Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.
We know SP=CP+P.
SP = 100+20 =120.
It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.
Now from question:
For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.
i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?
By Cross multiplying we get,
120*? = 100*6
? = 600/120
? = 5
So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.
Raghul.N said:
7 years ago
They ask how many pics will you buy if the price increases @20%.
1 Rup =100 Pc.
Find the single pic value (100/6=16.66 Pc).
if we increase the price means it affects the single price value so find the single price value after 20% gain or rise of the price.
16.66*(20/100)=3.33,
rising cost 3.33+basicprice (16.66)=19.99,
app=20 Pc for pic.
20*6=120 after adding profit 20%,
for that past price we only buy,
5 pic for 100 pic= 1 rup.
1.20 Pc will need for buy that 6 pic.
1 Rup =100 Pc.
Find the single pic value (100/6=16.66 Pc).
if we increase the price means it affects the single price value so find the single price value after 20% gain or rise of the price.
16.66*(20/100)=3.33,
rising cost 3.33+basicprice (16.66)=19.99,
app=20 Pc for pic.
20*6=120 after adding profit 20%,
for that past price we only buy,
5 pic for 100 pic= 1 rup.
1.20 Pc will need for buy that 6 pic.
Damodar Narayan said:
1 decade ago
RS. 1 -------> 6 TOFFEES.
RS. 10 -------> 60.
20% 0F 10 -------> 20% OF 60.
2 -------> 12.
12 * 5 = 60 i.e for a rupee he sell 5 Toffees to gain 20%.
Similarly A vendor bought toffees at 3 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 50%?
RS. 1 -------> 3 TOFFEES.
RS. 10 -------> 30.
50% 0F 10 -------> 50% OF 30.
5 -------> 15.
15 * 2 = 30 i.e for a rupee he sell 2 Toffees to gain 50%.
RS. 10 -------> 60.
20% 0F 10 -------> 20% OF 60.
2 -------> 12.
12 * 5 = 60 i.e for a rupee he sell 5 Toffees to gain 20%.
Similarly A vendor bought toffees at 3 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 50%?
RS. 1 -------> 3 TOFFEES.
RS. 10 -------> 30.
50% 0F 10 -------> 50% OF 30.
5 -------> 15.
15 * 2 = 30 i.e for a rupee he sell 2 Toffees to gain 50%.
K.Muni Teja said:
9 years ago
Hey Guys, it's simple I will explain in easy method.
First of all given one is,
6 toffees is Rs.1.
Now first find cost of 1toffee.
i.e) 1 ÷ 6 = 0.1666666666.
Next, From above problem given one is we have to sell toffees for Rs.1 to gain 20%.
i.e (0.1666666666÷20) * 100 = 0.83333333.
Here, 0.83333333 is cost of one toffee with 20% gain.
Then multiply the cost of toffees of 20%.
i.e 0.83333333 * no.of toffees i.e 6 = 4.99999998 = 5.
First of all given one is,
6 toffees is Rs.1.
Now first find cost of 1toffee.
i.e) 1 ÷ 6 = 0.1666666666.
Next, From above problem given one is we have to sell toffees for Rs.1 to gain 20%.
i.e (0.1666666666÷20) * 100 = 0.83333333.
Here, 0.83333333 is cost of one toffee with 20% gain.
Then multiply the cost of toffees of 20%.
i.e 0.83333333 * no.of toffees i.e 6 = 4.99999998 = 5.
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