# Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

### Discussion :: Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No.5)

5.

A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?

 [A]. 3 [B]. 4 [C]. 5 [D]. 6

Explanation:

C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1

 S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. 6 5

 For Rs. 6 , toffees sold = 6. 5

 For Re. 1, toffees sold = 6 x 5 = 5. 6

Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8

 123 said: (Aug 4, 2010) How do you got 120%.

 Rajivkumar said: (Aug 30, 2010) What is Rs. 6/5? Explain how it came?.

 Sundar said: (Aug 31, 2010) Hi All, Selling Price (SP) of 6 toffees = 120% of 1 = (120/100) x 1 = (12/10) x 1 = (6/5) x 1 = 6/5 Therefore Selling Price of 6 toffees = 6/5. Hope you understand guys. Have a nice day!

 M.Venkateswara Reddy said: (Sep 4, 2010) Let C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1 Re.1 is assume 100% we know the profit=20% Selling Price (SP) = profit+ C.P. = 120% of 1 = (120/100) x 1 = (12/10) x 1 = (6/5) x 1 = 6/5 Therefore Selling Price of 6 toffees = 6/5.

 Hari said: (Sep 10, 2010) Hi all, Let me exaplin more clearly. We have sp= (gain+100) *cp/100. So, sp= (20+100) *1/100 = 120/100 = 6/5. Now no. of toffes for 6/5 rupees= 6, then toffes for 1 rupee (see in ques last sentence) is asked?. So, it is = 6*5/6 = 5 is the answer!.

 Chetan said: (Nov 12, 2010) 6 toffees---> 1 re given profit % = 20% =>S.P of 6 toffees = 1.2 re Now consider only S.P 1.2 re--> 6 toffee 1 re ---> ? toffee 6/1.2 =5

 Harish said: (Nov 14, 2010) Thanks chetan.

 Chethu said: (Dec 1, 2010) We can also convert Re.1=100paise therefore each toffee is 100/6=16.67p we need 20% gain on each toffee. so the SP should be 120%. (120/100)*16.67 is 20p 20p*5=100paise=Re.1 so 5 toffees should be sold.

 Anandvijay said: (Dec 7, 2010) 2. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is: A. 15 B. 16 C. 18 D. 25 In this sum we take Easy method: c.p=(100/100+GAIN%)s.p so x=(100/125)20 x=16..

 Vivek said: (Jan 5, 2011) Let me to clear all of urs doubt....... c.p of 6 tofee= Re 1 1 tofee= 1/6 s.p of 6 tofee = x s.p of 1 tofee= 1/x profit%=((s.p-c.p)/c.p) x100 put the value and solve u will get 5 as ans

 Naresh said: (Jan 24, 2011) What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)

 Akshay said: (Apr 12, 2011) Use this simple formule: S.P=100+gain% -----------*C.P 100 S.P=100+20/100 -----------*1 100 Now simplify u will gwt the answer 5

 Kailash said: (May 1, 2011) N/A' here N=no. of toffees A'= 100+percentage/100 we taken + on profit and - on loss so 6/100+20/100 6x100/120 600/120 =5 this is very shortcut method of this type question

 Mrs Pallavi said: (May 19, 2011) Hey hi i have simple solution 6 toffees for re. 1 so c.p of 6 toffees are= 1 We have default formula to calculate s.p s.p=(100+profit%)*c.p/100 s.p=(100+20)*1/100 s.p=120*1/100 s.p=120/100 s.p=12/10 s.p=6/5 Therefore selling price is 6/5.

 Namrata said: (Jul 7, 2011) Why we do 6*5/6 nd how it be possile sold tofee 6?

 Amit Chandel said: (Jul 24, 2011) Let me tell you profit is 20%.now we know that 120%=6 tofees so 100=6*100/120 u get 5 ans

 Santosh said: (Jul 28, 2011) Thank you chatan

 Poornima said: (Aug 20, 2011) Hi cetan how you got sp of 6 toffee = 1.2 re?

 Tushar Vaibhav said: (Sep 8, 2011) S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% How does it come ?

 Prabhu said: (Sep 17, 2011) Chetan your explanations are so smart.

 Sneha Jain said: (Sep 24, 2011) @Tushar For 1 toffee it is 20% Therefore for 6 toffee = 20*6 = 120%

 Ridhi said: (Oct 7, 2011) @chetan How selling price of 1 toffeee is 1.2 ?

 Vaishnavi said: (Oct 7, 2011) How 120%?

 Kushal said: (Oct 11, 2011) How 6/5 = 5 ?

 Shree said: (Oct 13, 2011) Thanks chetan, it's good.

 Slimnick said: (Oct 26, 2011) Another thought C.P of 6 toffees= 1 rupee Profit = 20% hence using the formula P=(S.P-C.P)/C.P 20/100=(S.P-1)/1 hence S.P=1.2 rupees for 6 toffees so if 1.2 rupees = 6 toffees 1 rupee= X therefore X = 5 which is the toffees sold

 Ismail said: (Nov 4, 2011) Is the cost price 8 toffes equal to the selling price of 6 toffes, then the gain percent is 25%. How it calculates?

 Ismail said: (Nov 4, 2011) Out of an income of Rs. 15, 000. Diya spends 10, 200. What percent income do save? What will the calculation?

 Mahesh said: (Nov 12, 2011) Profit%=(profit/cp)*100 profit%=20 cp=1 profit=? 20=(profit/1)100 profit=20/100 profit=1/5 He can sell 5 for 1 RS.

 Harish Raj said: (Dec 1, 2011) Ismail -- Out of an income of Rs. 15, 000. Diya spends 10, 200. What percent income do save? 15000-10200=4800 4800*100/15000 = 32% Diya saved 32% of her salary.

 Sanju said: (Jan 18, 2012) A watch sold for Rs 448 gives a profit of only 12%. Find the profit % if the selling price had been Rs 512.

 Prabhath said: (Jan 21, 2012) A man bought 6 toffees for 1 rs... sold it for 20% profit...so he sold it for 1.2 rs... so to get 1 rs back he must sell 5 toffees...simple as that.. ie 6 toffees cost 1.2 so 1 toffee cost 1.2/6=.2 0.2*5=1... So answer is 5.

 Vennila said: (Jan 28, 2012) How you use 6*5/6. I can't understand that ?

 Sachin said: (Mar 23, 2012) Let's assume vendor bought 60 tofees. So he spent Rs.10 (1/6*60). Now he want 20% profit on Rs.10 i.e Rs.12. So now he must sell that 60 tofees for Rs.12 So for 1 rupee 5 (60/12) tofees has to sell.

 Rajkumar said: (May 3, 2012) Its simple lets assume we have 6 apples and we need to distribute each apple to a person. in case we took one apple from that then we can able to distribute only to 5 persons. in the same way 1re ------> 6 toffees have to gain 20%. 0.2rs(20paise) is the 20% from 1re take that 0.2 for urself that is ur gain so we can sell only for 0.8 rs in the place of 1 re so for 1re - - - - -> 6 toffees for 0.8 rs - - - -> ? (0.8*6)/1 = 4.8 = 5(round it off to nearest integer). this method is applicable to all kinda problems like this

 Vaibhav More said: (May 17, 2012) How do you take 120%.

 Selvaraj said: (Aug 13, 2012) 20% of 1 is .2. Hence to meet the profit with the cost price totally it will be 1.2. Hence 6 toffees are there the profit should be 20%. Divide those 6 toffees by 1.2. 6/1.2 = 5.

 Iam Hargun said: (Sep 16, 2012) 6 tofee for 1 re 1 tofee for 1/6 = .16 g% = g*100/c.p gain= s.p - c.p s.p = x g%=20 20 = (x-.16)*100/.16 x=.192 s.p of 1 =.192 for 5 =.96 there fore 5 tofee

 Shalu said: (Sep 29, 2012) Can anyone please explain : See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100. So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.

 Saugat said: (Oct 13, 2012) 6 toffes cost=Rs 1=100 paisa profit t0 be made =20% Of 100 in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa so,60 paisa =3 toffe 1 paisa=3/60 100 paisa=(3/60)*100 =5 toffes.

 Pooja Choubisa said: (Dec 14, 2012) CP of 6 Toffees= Rs 1. SP of 6 Toffees = 120% of Rs 1 = 120/100*1 =6/5*1 =Rs 6/5 Toffees sold 6*5/6=5 .

 Iamateur said: (Feb 2, 2013) C.P. of 6 toffee s---> 1 rs. Given profit % = 20% =>S.P of 6 toffees = 120% 120% of 1 = (120/100) x 1 = (12/10) x 1 = (6/5) x 1 = 6/5 =1.2 rs. Now consider only S.P 1.2 rs--> 6 toffee 1 rs ---> ? toffee 6/1.2 =5. As the question is asked to find only SP so for 5 toffees 1rs.

 Aditya said: (Mar 15, 2013) C.P. of 6 toffees = Rs.1. S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Rs.1 =6/5. For Rs.1 ---------- 6 toffee. Rs. 6/5 -------- 6*(5/6)=5 toffees. ;120% means 6/5 Rs.

 Motilal said: (Mar 26, 2013) Best Solution: Cost price of 6 tofees = Re.1. Then, cost price of 1 tofee = Re. 1/6. Profit is given 20%. We know selling price = (100+gain%)*c.p./100. Then, s.p. of 1 tofee = 120*(1/6)/100 i.e. 1/5. now, At Re.1/5 we sell 1 tofee. At Re. 1 we must sell 1*(5/1) i.e. 5 tofees to gain 20% profit.

 Mukesh said: (May 30, 2013) DOUBT: How do you people say "S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of 1". When the given question is S.P of X toffees = 120% of 1".

 Gomathy said: (Jun 24, 2013) C.P of 6 toffees = RS.1. Gain=20%(i.e)0.2. 0.2X = Rs.1. X = 1/0.2. = 5. Please suggest will this be a right approach?

 Mahendra Sharma said: (Jul 3, 2013) On selling of 6 toffee, profit is 1 toffee. What is the percentage profit ?

 Dadasaheb said: (Jul 10, 2013) 6 toffees for 1 Rs. So the C.P. of 1 toffee=1/6 Rs. Gain%=(gain*100)/C.P. Now given gain%=20. So, 20=(gain*100)/(1/6) 20*(1/6)=(gain*100). 20/6=gain*100 10/3=gain*100 10/300=gain 1/30=gain. Now, Gain=S.P.-C.P 1/30=S.P.-1/6 1/30+1/6=S.P. (1+5)/30=S.P. 1/5=S.P. S.P.=1/5 R.S. Therefore, S.P. of 5 toffees is 1 Rs. So Answer is 5 toffees.

 Damodar Narayan said: (Aug 1, 2013) RS. 1 -------> 6 TOFFEES. RS. 10 -------> 60. 20% 0F 10 -------> 20% OF 60. 2 -------> 12. 12 * 5 = 60 i.e for a rupee he sell 5 Toffees to gain 20%. Similarly A vendor bought toffees at 3 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 50%? RS. 1 -------> 3 TOFFEES. RS. 10 -------> 30. 50% 0F 10 -------> 50% OF 30. 5 -------> 15. 15 * 2 = 30 i.e for a rupee he sell 2 Toffees to gain 50%.

 Muruga said: (Sep 4, 2013) Hi, selling price of 6 toffees = 6/5. OK. And then next step I can't understood help me.

 Roji said: (Oct 4, 2013) Friends I solved in this manner: Vendor bought at 6 for a rupee i.e.,6 c.p = 1Rs. =>1 c.p = 1/6 Rs. Given as, he must sell to gain 20% i.e., s.p = 120% of c.p. =>(120/100)*(1/6). =>1/5. i.e., for 1 Rs, he bought 5 toffees.

 Abhinavsinghrajput said: (Oct 6, 2013) Here is a simple explanation. Given: For Rs.1 = 6 toffees. After profit of 20%. For Rs 1.2 = 6 toffees Let for rs.1 = x toffees Cross multiply, 1.2x = 6. Which gives x=5 :).

 Vasavi Kotha said: (Oct 15, 2013) In Question they didn't mention profit is 20%. Then how everyone telling profit is 20%. Please answer my question. And explain the solution in another method if possible?

 Rabia said: (Oct 30, 2013) Let x be taken as 1 rupee : C.P of 6 toffees = x. S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of x. S.P of 6 = 6/5x. Now 6 * 5/6 = x. 5 = x.

 Lavanya said: (Nov 2, 2013) Easy way: Formula:- p% = p*100/c.p. 20 = p*100/1. p = 20/100 = 1/5. i.e for rs.1 5 toffees.

 Raja Ab said: (Nov 2, 2013) It is simple the 20 % profit on 6 toffees 6*20/100 = 6/5 very simple.

 Thippesh said: (Nov 11, 2013) Take 1 Rupee=100% so Rq gain = 20 therefore gain =100/20= 5 so. Do like this many problems and ex: if 15 Rs then multiply into 100 1500/20.

 B.Vinoth said: (Feb 3, 2014) I have doubt. I take each toffee one rupee, Profit=20%. Then, SP-CP/CP *100=20%, SP=7.2 Rs, How to relate with this question?

 Preeti said: (Feb 15, 2014) See.. C.P of 6 toffees = Rs 1, Profit=20%, S.P = (1+P%)*C.P. = (1+20/100)*1 = (120/100)*1 =1.2*1 1.2. If Rs 1.2 is the S.P of the toffee = 6. So, Rs 1 is the S.P of the toffee = 6/1.2 = 60/12 = 5 answer.

 Neha said: (Feb 25, 2014) This is very simple solution. ((6-x)/x)*100=20 then x=5. For articles we have to take selling articles(x) as base for profit percentage.

 Nidhi Katiyar said: (Mar 9, 2014) Cost price of 1 toffee is 1/6. Now at 100 --- 1/6. Then at 120 ---- ?. 120*1/6 = 20/100 = 1/5. I.e. it means selling price of 1 toffee is 1/5. 1 rupee for 5 toffees.

 Luna said: (Mar 31, 2014) C.P of 6 toffee = Re 1. S.P of 6 toffee = 120% of Re 1 = 1.2. S.P of 1 toffee = 6/1.2 = 5.

 Shiv said: (May 19, 2014) Guys it's so simple Just read the question carefully you'll get the answer easily.

 Mahendra Chozhan said: (May 24, 2014) You can go from the answer itself. Option D - It can't be because it is already given that he sold 6 toffees for 1 rupee. So if he sells 6 toffees for 1 rupee he won't have any profit. So its not the answer. Option B - If he sells four toffees for 1 rupee then cost of 1 toffee is 1/4=0.25, therefore 6 toffees will make 1.25rs. But it is given that 20 % profit. So it should be 1.20rs only. So its not the answer. Option A - If he sells 3 toffees for 1 rupee then other three he'll sell for another one rupee, which gives him 100% profit. So its not the answer. Option C - Obviously this should be the answer.

 Rohit said: (May 25, 2014) What is the gain in this question?

 Debolina Roy said: (Jun 18, 2014) How 6*5/6 has come?

 Rbrana said: (Jun 20, 2014) CP of 6 toffees = 1 Rs; Means CP of 6 toffees = 100 paise; If we sell 6 toffees in 120 paise, We will get 20% profit in these 6 toffees, Means we'll shell 6 toffees in 1.2Rs to get 20% profit. Here, 1.2rs -----> 6. 1rs -------> 6/1.2 = 5.

 Javid Mir said: (Jul 1, 2014) C.P= 1. Gain%=20. We know, Gain%=Gain*100/C.P, 20=gain*100/1, Or, gain=20/100, Gain=1/5. But gain=S.P-C.P. Or S.P=gain+C.P. S.P=1/5+1. S.P=6/5 Rs. i.e. We have to sold 6 No. for S.P 6/5. But since we have to calculate how many we have to sell for Rs.1. Therefore, for Rs.6/5 we will sold = 6 toffees. For Rs.1 we will sold = 6/6/5. Or 6x5/6=5 answer.

 Bishnu Adhikari said: (Jul 6, 2014) If cp is 200, 25% gain is added in sp what is the new sp and Gain ?

 Nikhil said: (Jul 15, 2014) A person sold 12 chocolates for a rupee and made a loss of 25%. Find how many chocolates should he sell for a rupee to make 50% profit?

 Ravi Kumar said: (Aug 17, 2014) Suppose he sell x chocolates at the cost of 6 chocolates and gain profit or 20%. By formula, (6-x)/x*100 = 20. x = 5.

 Nischal said: (Aug 23, 2014) 6 chocolate for = 1 rupee. 1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee. //After 20 % increment in chocolate price. 1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5. So, 1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate. 1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.

 Goutam Kumar said: (Sep 22, 2014) How many % to 10% loss on the sale price will be the purchase price?

 Banty said: (Sep 28, 2014) 120 is = 6. 1 is = 6/120. 100 is = 6/120*100. = 5 answer.

 M.V.Krishna/Palvoncha said: (Oct 14, 2014) CP of 6 Toffees = Re.1 = 100ps. Required gain% = 20%. (i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps). Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps. We know SP=CP+P. SP = 100+20 =120. It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps. Now from question: For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then. For 100ps how many he has to sell. i.e. 120 ---- 6 100 ---- ? By Cross multiplying we get, 120*? = 100*6 ? = 600/120 ? = 5 So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.

 Santoshdalal said: (Oct 25, 2014) Hello friends. We can do use this method or not? 120/100*x = 6 => x = 6*100/120 => x = 5

 Mit said: (Nov 10, 2014) 1 Rs is 100% then 20% is 1/5 so 5 is answer.

 Ajay Naik said: (Nov 13, 2014) By selling toffees at 20 for a rupee a man loss 4%. To gain 20% for Re 1 he must sell?

 Pradipsinh Hada said: (Nov 17, 2014) I wonder no one argued for answer 6! See salesmen bought toffee at 100 paise @ 16.67 paise each. For gaining 20% he must get 120 paise or the toffee worth 20 paise after getting his C.P. If he sell 5 toffee @ 100 paise, then he have only one toffee which worth 16.67 paise as he bought, i.e 16.67% profit, not 20%. How can we value a toffee of 20 paise unless he sell it? He didn't sell last toffee for 20 paise, so he didn't gain 20 paise. So the one toffee left worth 16.67. Thus the profit is 16.67 paise i.e. 16.67%. If and only if he sell all 6 toffees in 120 paise, he can gain 20% toffee.

 Glory said: (Dec 15, 2014) I don't understand your explanation, can some one elaborate more please.

 Obed said: (Feb 19, 2015) 100% + 20% (i.e profit) = 120% (for 6 toffees). 120% = 6. 1% = 6/120. 100% = (6/120)*100. Value for 100% = 5.

 Kasinath23@Hyd said: (Apr 29, 2015) Chain rule: 1Rs------ 6 toffees--------100%. 1Rs-------x toffees---------120%. More Tofees per Rupee results less profit%. There it is inverse proportion. 1*6*100 = 1*x*120====> x = 5.

 Sunil said: (May 3, 2015) In question they have given 20%. Why your assuming 120%?

 Riya said: (May 7, 2015) @Sunil. That goes by the formula: SP = (100+gain%)*CP/100.

 Suresh said: (Jun 1, 2015) C.P of one toffees = 1/6 and S.P of one toffees = 120/100.1/6 = 1/5. He must sold 5 toffees to get 20% profit.

 Nisarg said: (Jun 16, 2015) C.P. of 1 toffee = 1/6 Rs. Profit % = 20 %. Now, profit % = (profit*100)/C.P. So, profit = 20*(C.P.)/100. Profit = 1/30 Rs for 1 toffee. Now, S.P. = C.P.+profit. S.P. = 1/6+1/30. S.P. = 1/5 Rs for 1 toffee. For S.P. = 1 Rs he has to sell 5 toffees.

 Bhargav said: (Jul 3, 2015) Guys I think this may be simple for you. Given 1 rupee = 6 toffees. So to avoid complexions in calculations. Let's multiply with 100 on both side. 100 rupees = 600 toffees. Given profit = 20%. Sp = Cp+P. Sp = 100+20. Sp = 120. Now, no of toffees = 600/120 = 5. Hope that you can understand easily. Thank you guys. All the best.

 Sandu said: (Jul 16, 2015) If a man gains 5% by selling nibs at the rate of 34 a rupee, how many rupee must he sell them. So as to gain 19%.

 Farhat said: (Aug 3, 2015) CP of 6 toffee = 1. Gain = 20%. Profit% = p*100/cp. 20 = p*100/1. p = 20*1/100. p = 1/5. i.e; for 5 toffees for re. 1.

 Neha said: (Aug 6, 2015) How get 6/5?

 Ashish Verma said: (Aug 7, 2015) What would be the answer if I have given 20 Rupees I need to purchase 06 thing. All 06 thing total price should be 20. Condition there should not be any thing in 0 OR decimals & less than 1 rupees and number should not be repeated mean if I have bought anything in price of 02 rupees than I can not purchase again anything in 02 Rupees.

 Jay said: (Aug 8, 2015) 6/5 how it comes? If loss is given for ex:- 0.44 and profit is given 0.25. How to take it in fraction can anyone explain?

 Subrata Adhikary said: (Aug 14, 2015) 6 toffees in 1 rps. Assume cp = 10 rps. So, total toffees = 10*6 = 60. Now sp = 12 rps (as 20% profit). So, 12 rps sp of 60 toffees. So, 1 rps sp = 60/12 = 5 answer. (Here rps means rupee).

 Gopinath said: (Aug 22, 2015) Bought sell. 1/6 = 100%, 1/? = 120% (Because need 20% gain so add 100+20%). = 600 ? = 120. So ? = 600/120. ? = 5. Ans: 5.

 Shaik Saleem said: (Sep 4, 2015) Hi All, Six toffees for Re. 1 = 1/6 = 0.166. 0.17x20% profit = 0.033. 0.033+0.166 = 0.199 approx 0.20. Now for 1 Re. 1/0.20 = 5.

 Rahul Kumar said: (Sep 10, 2015) Since 1 Rs ----------> 6 Toffees. Now 1+20% of 1 = 1+(1/5) = 6/5 Rs. Means that after gaining 20%, 6/5 Rs ----------> 6 toffee. 1 Rs -----------> 6*(5/6) toffees = 5 Toffees.

 Hariom said: (Sep 26, 2015) By selling 45 lemons a vendors loses a sum equal to the selling price of 3 lemons. Find the loss percentage.

 Victor said: (Oct 25, 2015) How does 6/5 is interchanged into 5/6 at the last step?

 Naveen said: (Dec 18, 2015) C.P for 6 toffees = Rs 1. 100 percentage = 1. Profit = 20 percentage. 100 percentage = 1 then 20 percentage = 0.2. P = 0.2, S = C+P = 1+0.2 = 1.2 Rs. 1 Rs = 6/1.2 = 5 toffees.

 Joh said: (Dec 23, 2015) @Chetan from where you got 1.2?

 Anonymous said: (Jan 7, 2016) You can do even like this. 6 toffees for 1 rupee => 1 toffee for 1/6 rupees. So to gain 20% profit. Lets say he sells x toffees for 1 rupee => 1 toffee for 1/x rupees. Now gain can be written as (1/x-1/6)/(1/6)*100. This should be 20 (Easily make out here x is 5).

 Dhatri said: (Feb 1, 2016) This is a good way for solving our problems related to maths.

 Sanjay said: (Feb 26, 2016) 6 CP = X SP CP/SP = X/6 P% = {(X-6)/X}*100 25 = {(X-6)/X}*100 X = 5.

 Mummed Afees said: (May 21, 2016) SP 6 toffee = 1.2 Rs(1 + 20% = 1.2). Hence, SP of 1 Toffee = 1.2/6 = .2 Rs. How many toffee need to be sold to get 1 rupee = .2 * 5 toffee = 1.

 Lucky said: (May 27, 2016) Short trick to know answer is: 6 * 100/120 = 5. So 5, toffees in 1 Rupee to gain 20%.

 Vishal said: (Jul 11, 2016) Think logically for these sums. You have 6 toffees for 1 Re. Assume if he sells 3 toffees for 1 re his gain is 50%. In this question, he needs 20% gain. If he sells 5 toffies his gain will be 20%. (if you still have doubt how he got 20% for 5 toffies). Assume 6 toffies for 1 re=120% (this is total). The Same manner see. If he sells 1 toffee for 1 re his gains is 100%. 2 toffee for 1 re = 80%. 3toffee for 1 re = 60%. 4toffee for 1 re = 40%. 5toffee for 1re = 20%. The more he sells for same amount gain reduce, the lesser no of toffees he sells for 1 re the gain increase.

 Tsencheo said: (Jul 19, 2016) I don't get the idea of how 6/5*6 is 5? Please help me. I am very weak in maths.

 Morissonjm said: (Jul 31, 2016) C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1 100 % = 1 Rs. 20 % of 1 Rs is = 0.2. To make 1 Rs(C.P.) he has to sell = 0.2 * 5 = 1. Rs. We have a gain of 1 Toffee means 20% gain on original cost Price after selling 5 toffees.

 Habiba said: (Aug 5, 2016) 6 toffee = 1Rs cp 1 toffee = 1/6 Rs. cp 20% profit,so, cp = 100. sp = 120. When cp is 100, sp is 120. cp is 1, sp is 120/100, cp is 1/6,sp is = 120/100.1/6, = 1/5 rs. Now, for 1/5 Rs = 1 toffee. for 1rs = 5/1.1 = 5 toffees => answer.

 Mounika Love said: (Aug 10, 2016) Can anyone solve the same model in case if lose percentage is given example: 20% loss if sell at some percentage and how many should he sell to gain 20%.

 Vikas said: (Aug 11, 2016) Great solution @Chetan.

 Avdhesh Singh said: (Aug 19, 2016) Guys who have a problem to understand 120% they can refer this answer. First of all, we are not thinking about no of chocolate. C.P =1rs (price for 6 chocolate). Gain = 20%. S.P =? (let x). Gain=[ (S.P - C. P) /C.P] * 100. 20 = {(x - 1) /1] * 100. So, x = 6/5 Rs (surely it'll be selling price of 6 chocolate).

 Arjun said: (Aug 19, 2016) 6 toffee = 1rs -> 1 toffee = 1/6 rs. x toffee = 1 rs -> 1 toffee = 1/x rs. P = s.p - c.p. => 1/x - 1/6, =>(6 - x)/6x. This is the profit on 1/6 rs. But here mentioned in the question about "how many for a rupee). So we multiply this profit value by 6 to make 1/6 rs -> 1 rs..... => (6 - x) * 6/6x = (6 - x)/x. P% = (P/c.p) * 100. P% = 20. 20 = ((6 - x)/x) * 100, x = (6-x) * 5, x = 30 - 5x, 6x = 30, x = 5.

 Rahul said: (Aug 20, 2016) Yes, even I am a bit confused how come 6/5 became 5/6 * 6 ?

 Rahul Yadav said: (Aug 22, 2016) CP of 6 toffees = Re 1. Profit % = 20%. As we know profit % = (profit/Cp) * 100. 20 = profit/1 * 100. Profit = Re 1/5. SP for 6 toffees = Profit + Cp. = (1/5) + 5. = 6/5. So SP of 6 toffees = Re 6/5. For Re 6/5 = 6 toffees. Re 1= 6 * 5/6 toffees. Re 1 = 5 toffees.

 Shailesh said: (Sep 14, 2016) 100 paise/6 = 16.666 Now 1/5(20%) of 16.66 = 3.333 as he needs 20% profit. So, add 16.66 + 3.44 = 20. Now he must sell 100/5 i.e 5 for Rs 1.

 Elga Jerusha said: (Sep 17, 2016) Lemons are bought at the rate of 3 for rupees 4. At what rate must they be sold to gain 20%?

 Mgnv Prasad said: (Oct 12, 2016) 6 tofees - Rs. 1. C.p of 1 tofee - Rs1/6. Profit = 20%. C.p/100 = S.p/120. 1/(6 * 100) = S.p/120. S.p = 5. Note: Assuming c.p as 100 and profit is 20 i.e s.p = 120.

 Tintooo said: (Oct 20, 2016) For re 1 is 20% so for 6 it is 120.

 Rajesh said: (Nov 3, 2016) Agree @B.Vinoth. 7.2 toffee he has to sell in order to earn 20% profit.

 Debopriya Chandra said: (Nov 21, 2016) By selling the articles at Rs 240 a trader gains 25%. So what would be his profit % if he sells the articles at Rs. 216?

 Keerthana said: (Nov 24, 2016) C.P = 6rs S.P = ? S.P for gain = (100 + gain%)/(100 * c.p) = (100 + 20%)/(100 * 6), = 120/600, = 1/5, = 0.5. We can take it as 5rs.

 Narendra said: (Dec 2, 2016) C.P.= S.P * 100/100+20%. = 600/120. = 5 Answer.

 Sumit Kumar said: (Dec 3, 2016) I have a question if a merchant sells table in rs 26.65 by 5 percent loss when he sells in rs 31.05 so what is gain or loss percent.

 Krittika said: (Dec 12, 2016) Hi! Actually, I wanted to ask " if we have to divide 100 rs. In two persons, so as one person will get 1 rs. Extra how we can divide it ?". I answered that we should divide it in 49 and 51 rs. But my teacher said it's wrong he answered that in something points. Will tell me why its answer was not that? Please explain the solution. Thanks.

 Naga Sai said: (Dec 14, 2016) Why 5 is placed at denominator?

 Rejin said: (Jan 2, 2017) A boy buy 3 lemons at 1 rupee and sell them at 4 for a 1 rupee, then the loss percent is? Please solve it.

 Sana said: (Jan 6, 2017) Apple are bought at the rate of 12 for Rs. 10 and sold at the rate of 10 for Rs. 12. The profit is? Please solve it.

 S. K. Dwivedi said: (Jan 7, 2017) Let the total toffees are 2x in which x toffees are Bought at 6 for a rupees and x toffees are bought 4 for a rupees. Then total rupees will be x/6+x/4 = 5x/12. Now total toffees are baughtat5for a rupees then total money = 2x/5. It's loss= 5x/12-2x/5 = x/60.loss% = x/60/5x/12*100 = 4%.

 K.Muni Teja said: (Jan 21, 2017) Hey Guys, it's simple I will explain in easy method. First of all given one is, 6 toffees is Rs.1. Now first find cost of 1toffee. i.e) 1 ÷ 6 = 0.1666666666. Next, From above problem given one is we have to sell toffees for Rs.1 to gain 20%. i.e (0.1666666666÷20) * 100 = 0.83333333. Here, 0.83333333 is cost of one toffee with 20% gain. Then multiply the cost of toffees of 20%. i.e 0.83333333 * no.of toffees i.e 6 = 4.99999998 = 5.

 Ashish Kumar said: (Jan 26, 2017) C.P. of 6 tofees = 120% of S.P. 6 = 120/100 * S.P. S.P = 5.

 Rajiv Hussain said: (Feb 25, 2017) I have a question, can anyone solve this question for me? A man buys an egg at 2 for Rs 1 and an equal number at 3 for rs 2 and sells the whole at 5 for rs 3. What is gain or loss?

 Prasanth said: (Feb 28, 2017) Can you please anyone clear my doubt? How 120% comes? Why they take 120%?

 Khadarbaba said: (Mar 8, 2017) @Prasanth. In problem, profit is 20%. For 1 Re. he bought 6 toffees And he need to gain 20% profit. Profit is always calculated on cost price. 20% of 1Re. is 0.2 So, he need to sell those toffees at 1.2 Re. to get 20% profit. But, he asked how many he need to sell for 1 Re., For 1.2 Re., he sells 6 toffees; so, For 1 Re. he sells = (6*10)/12=5 [cross multiplication] I hope you will understood now.

 Deepakjain said: (Apr 5, 2017) Easy way. Let 6 toffe taken = 100 paise. 20% gain so 120 paise for 6(means 1 toffe given in 20 paise). Then in 100 paise only 5 toffe will be given(20 * 5).

 Vaishnavi said: (Jun 13, 2017) For 1rs = 6toffee is cp, and 1rs = 5toffee is sp. Then how it will be profit?

 Kapil said: (Jun 19, 2017) @Sundar. Nice explanation. Thank you.

 Soumya Ranjan Nayak said: (Jun 28, 2017) 1rs = 100 paisa Sp of 1 toffee is 100/6. New Sp of 1 toffe=120/6=20paisa ( as 20%profit), In 100 paisa there will be 100÷20= 5 toffees.

 Nikunj Sahni said: (Jul 8, 2017) I have most simple solution, I hope you'll love it. If you've selling some toffees at 1 Rs and You're getting 20% profit so you must have purchased those toffees at amount < 1. Let You've purchased those toffees for X Rs That why for profit % , we will write equation. (SP - CP) / CP * 100 = Profit%. (1-X)/X*100 = 20. (1-X)/X = 20/100 --> 100 - 100X = 20X ---> 120X = 100 ---> X =100/120 = 5/6 Rs It means that you've purchased some toffees for 6/5 Rs and you're selling same toffees for 1 Rs and you're getting 20% Profit. So last step would be finding toffees we brought at 6/5 Rs that would be the final solution. In 1 Rs we brought --- 6 Toffees. So in 5/6 Rs we brought -- 6*(5/6) Toffees or 5 Toffees. So Ans = 5 Toffees.

 Jai said: (Jul 9, 2017) @Vaisnavi You've brought 6 toffees in 1 Rs and only sold 5 Toffees in 1 Rs. So you've recovered your 1 Rs and still 1 toffee in your hand. Let you will sell this 6th toffee for X Rs. So CP for 6 Toffees = 1 Rs. SP for 6 Toffee = 1+X Rs. So clearly it will be profit case.

 Pankaj said: (Jul 17, 2017) To get 20% profit he sold 6 toffees at 1.20 Rs. So, 1.2 Rs => 6 toffees. 1 Rs => X toffees. Cross Multiply, we get X = (6 x 1) / 1.2 = 5 toffees.

 Sameer said: (Jul 29, 2017) Step 1: 6 toffees in 1 Rs. Step 2: Add 20% to Rs 1, that's 1.2 Rs. Step 3: 6/1.2 = 5 Toffees.

 Prakhar Anand Upasak said: (Aug 3, 2017) 100%= 6 120%= 6 * 100/120=5 toffees.

 Gokul said: (Aug 15, 2017) How did they find the number of toffees for Re 1?

 Sangipriyanka said: (Aug 29, 2017) How we get 6/5?

 Kishore said: (Aug 30, 2017) c.p =1. p%=20. so,sp=(120/100)c.p=1.2(for 6 toffes(i.e 0.2 for each)). so, 0.2*5(why 5,to sell it for 1 re)=1 (ans :5).

 Izahar Ansari said: (Sep 22, 2017) Well explained. Thank You.

 Manikanta.C said: (Jan 3, 2018) Thank you @Roji and @Chetan. It helped me a lot to solve many of profit and loss problems by using your logic.

 Din said: (Jan 22, 2018) 6÷20*100=5.

 Rashi said: (Jan 28, 2018) 1 rupee tofee=6. profit=20%. s.p=cp*100/100+profit. s.p=6*100/100+20. s.p=6*100/120. s.p=5.

 Jagmohan Singh said: (Jan 30, 2018) Cost Price of 6 Tofees is Rs 1, Profit % = 20% , SP=? According To Formula, SP= CP(100+Profit%)Totally Divided by 100. so SP = 1(100+20) / 100, = 120/100 = 1.2 So Required Quantity He must sell is = 6/1.2 =5 Ans/- Hope you understand guys.

 Sidhu said: (Feb 5, 2018) 120/- ---- 6 100/- ---- ? so that cross multiplication 100*6/120 = 5.

 Sarah said: (Feb 24, 2018) A fruit saler buys 12 apples for Rs 36. If the fruit saler made 20% profit. How many Apple did fruit saler sales for rs 36. Please, solve the problem for me. Thank you.

 Sarah said: (Feb 24, 2018) Thank you.

 Captain said: (Apr 25, 2018) Easy solution. x * 120/100 = 6, 120x/120 = 600/120, x = 5, or 6/1.2 = 5.

 Birbal said: (May 30, 2018) Let x is the toffee should be sold to get re1. one toffee rate=1/6; 20 percent gain means the rate of one toffie=(120/100)*(1/6)=y, 6*(1/6) = x*y; x = 5.

 Vaishnavi said: (Jun 2, 2018) Thank you @Chetan. Your explanation was nice, I understood the problem clearly.

 Raghul.N said: (Jun 16, 2018) They ask how many pics will you buy if the price increases @20%. 1 Rup =100 Pc. Find the single pic value (100/6=16.66 Pc). if we increase the price means it affects the single price value so find the single price value after 20% gain or rise of the price. 16.66*(20/100)=3.33, rising cost 3.33+basicprice (16.66)=19.99, app=20 Pc for pic. 20*6=120 after adding profit 20%, for that past price we only buy, 5 pic for 100 pic= 1 rup. 1.20 Pc will need for buy that 6 pic.

 Tarun said: (Jun 21, 2018) S.p = 1 C.P = N*1/6.

 Sanjay Acchana said: (Jul 4, 2018) Hello everyone. let me explain more clearly. given that cost price of 6toffes =1RS. s.p of 6 toffees = (100+20)/100 *1RS, =6/5RS. For 6/5RS =6toffes. then for 1RS =? CROSS MULTIPLY THOSE BOTH WE WILL GET AN ANSWER AS 5.

 Gowtham said: (Jul 6, 2018) Guys they have asked how toffees he has to sell so that the profit is 20%, so why do you calculate selling price 6/5, all have mentioned selling price of 6 toffees is 6/5 then it means 6 toffees are sold right, where does 5 toffees come? Please explain me.

 Joejose said: (Jul 21, 2018) CP of 1 toffee= (1/6). SP to get 20%gain= (1.2x (1/6) ). How many to sell to get 1 rupee=> 1/SP= (6/1.2) =5.

 Zuber said: (Aug 21, 2018) 6--->1re. X--->20% gain. 6---> 120 X--->100. So, X = 100 * 6/120 = 5.

 Sandeep Yadav said: (Oct 9, 2018) @Anandvijay. How you can take 125?

 Priya said: (Nov 25, 2018) 1*6*100 = 1 x 120, X=5

 Mahesh said: (Jan 22, 2019) Assume for 100 rs he needs 120 including profit. So 100 rs 600 toffees. Check-in option with which when dividing 120 comes 600/5 = 120.

 Hussain said: (Feb 1, 2019) Logic is that; He bought toffees 6 for a rupee but he got 20/100 profit means logically the answer should be less than 6. So, to get less than 6, the answer should be 6 * 100/120 = 5.

 Ameer said: (Mar 16, 2019) By using this formula one can easily findout the solution. s.p = {(100+gain%)/100} * c.p, 1/X = {(100+20%)/100} * 1/6, Hence X = 5.

 Singh said: (Mar 17, 2019) 6 = 6 * 20%, 6 = 120%, 6 = 120/100, 6 = 6/5. = 6 * 5/6, = 5.

 Spartan007 said: (Mar 26, 2019) Take; 120 % is 6 100% is ? 120 * x =6 * 100, x= (6*100) /120; x = 5.

 Kiran said: (Apr 24, 2019) 6T= 100p. 1T= 100/6paisas. To gain 20% profit on it; 100/6* 120/100=20paisa. So1T=20 paisa. Ans in 100 paisa he must give 5 toffee (20*5=100 paisa).

 Rohit Bind said: (May 14, 2019) Total CP = 4700 + 800 = 5500rupees. And, Given the selling price (s.p) = 5800rupee. Then profit =(s.p) - (c.p) = 5800-5500 = 300rupess. Then as we know that profit%=profit * 100/c.p. So, 300 * 100/5500 = 300/55rupees. = 60/11rupees.

 Tejas Dhavalikar said: (May 18, 2019) Simple method. 6 for a rupee and he sell to gain 20% we have taken 120 because of 20 % gain. 6*100/120 = 5.

 Rohit Kushwaha said: (Jun 18, 2019) In 1 rupee, sell 6 toffee. Profit is 20 percentage. 20 percentage of 1 rupee, 1x(20/100) =1/5 rupee profit, SP=1+(1/5) =6/5, In 6/5 rupee sell 6 toffee, In 1 rupee sell 6x(5/6) =5 toffee answer.

 Hajji said: (Sep 6, 2019) In 1 rupee, sell 6 toffee. Profit is 20 percentage. 20 percentage of 1 rupee, 1x(20/100) =1/5 rupee profit, SP=1+(1/5) = 6/5, In 6/5 rupee sell 6 toffee, In 1 rupee sell 6x(5/6) = 5 toffee answer.

 Enga said: (Oct 21, 2019) How 6 by 5 become upside down?

 Sajjad Hossain said: (Feb 10, 2020) CP is 1 Rs for 6 toffee. for 20% profit, sp should be 1.2 Rs. SP is 1.2 Rs for 6 toffees. SP is 1 Rs for (6/1.2) = 5 toffees.

 Swathi said: (Jun 19, 2020) Good explanation, Thanks @Chetan.

 Rajesh said: (Jun 24, 2020) CP is 1 rs 6 toffees for 20% profit sp should be increased by 120%. which is 1.2 rs for 6 toffee. for 1 toffee sp is rs. 0.2, And for 1 rupee, 0.2*1 = 5 toffees.

 Kyasa Akhila said: (Jan 27, 2021) Another method also there by using the formula CP = 1/6Rs, Sp = (100+profit)% * CP, Sp =(100+20)% * 1/6, Sp = 120% * 1/6, Sp = 120/100 * 1/6, Sp = 5Rs.

 Naveen said: (Jun 2, 2021) It's a logical thing; 6 toffees =rs. 1 The seller needs 20 percent of the profit So, each candy has 20percent therefore 6 * 20 = 120, Then remove one of the 20percent as a gain. Therefore, 6-1 =5.

 Geethika said: (Jul 22, 2021) Yes, correct @Naveen. Thank you.

 Madhavi said: (Jul 28, 2021) From the question; C.P = 1Re/6. Always assume C.P=100%. Now Profit =20%. S.P=C.P+ Profit=120%. 100%------>1Re/6T. 120%------>1Re/xT. If we do cross multiplication we will get x=5.

 Vishnu Prakash said: (Aug 11, 2021) 100 paisa = 6 toffee -----> 1 120 paisa = X toffee -----> 2. So the equation 1&2 equal. Then, 100 * 6 = 120 * X. X = 600/120. X = 5.

 Aritra Charkaborty said: (Aug 24, 2021) The cost price of 6 toffee = Rs 1. Selling price of 6 toffee = (gain + 100) * cost price / 100 = (20 + 100) * 1 / 100 = 120/100 = 6/5. In 6/5 Rs he can sell 6 toffee, In 1 Rs he can sell = 6 * 5/6 = 5 toffee.