Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = | ![]() |
6 x | 5 | ![]() |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
212 comments Page 11 of 22.
Javid Mir said:
1 decade ago
C.P= 1.
Gain%=20.
We know, Gain%=Gain*100/C.P,
20=gain*100/1,
Or, gain=20/100,
Gain=1/5.
But gain=S.P-C.P.
Or S.P=gain+C.P.
S.P=1/5+1.
S.P=6/5 Rs.
i.e. We have to sold 6 No. for S.P 6/5.
But since we have to calculate how many we have to sell for Rs.1.
Therefore, for Rs.6/5 we will sold = 6 toffees.
For Rs.1 we will sold = 6/6/5.
Or 6x5/6=5 answer.
Gain%=20.
We know, Gain%=Gain*100/C.P,
20=gain*100/1,
Or, gain=20/100,
Gain=1/5.
But gain=S.P-C.P.
Or S.P=gain+C.P.
S.P=1/5+1.
S.P=6/5 Rs.
i.e. We have to sold 6 No. for S.P 6/5.
But since we have to calculate how many we have to sell for Rs.1.
Therefore, for Rs.6/5 we will sold = 6 toffees.
For Rs.1 we will sold = 6/6/5.
Or 6x5/6=5 answer.
Bishnu Adhikari said:
1 decade ago
If cp is 200, 25% gain is added in sp what is the new sp and Gain ?
Nikhil said:
1 decade ago
A person sold 12 chocolates for a rupee and made a loss of 25%. Find how many chocolates should he sell for a rupee to make 50% profit?
Ravi kumar said:
1 decade ago
Suppose he sell x chocolates at the cost of 6 chocolates and gain profit or 20%.
By formula,
(6-x)/x*100 = 20.
x = 5.
By formula,
(6-x)/x*100 = 20.
x = 5.
Nischal said:
1 decade ago
6 chocolate for = 1 rupee.
1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.
//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.
1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.
So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.
1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.
//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.
1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.
So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.
Goutam kumar said:
1 decade ago
How many % to 10% loss on the sale price will be the purchase price?
Banty said:
1 decade ago
120 is = 6.
1 is = 6/120.
100 is = 6/120*100.
= 5 answer.
1 is = 6/120.
100 is = 6/120*100.
= 5 answer.
M.V.KRISHNA/Palvoncha said:
1 decade ago
CP of 6 Toffees = Re.1 = 100ps.
Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).
Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.
We know SP=CP+P.
SP = 100+20 =120.
It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.
Now from question:
For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.
i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?
By Cross multiplying we get,
120*? = 100*6
? = 600/120
? = 5
So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.
Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).
Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.
We know SP=CP+P.
SP = 100+20 =120.
It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.
Now from question:
For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.
i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?
By Cross multiplying we get,
120*? = 100*6
? = 600/120
? = 5
So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.
SantoshDalal said:
1 decade ago
Hello friends.
We can do use this method or not?
120/100*x = 6
=> x = 6*100/120
=> x = 5
We can do use this method or not?
120/100*x = 6
=> x = 6*100/120
=> x = 5
Mit said:
1 decade ago
1 Rs is 100% then 20% is 1/5 so 5 is answer.
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