Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
                   
                                       
                                5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
 
                                    Answer: Option
                                                    Explanation:
                                                C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 | 
| 5 | 
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. | 
| 5 | 
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  | 6 x | 5 |  | = 5. | 
| 6 | 
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 11 of 22.
                
                        Bishnu Adhikari said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                If cp is 200, 25% gain is added in sp what is the new sp and Gain ?
                
                        Nikhil said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                A person sold 12 chocolates for a rupee and made a loss of 25%. Find how many chocolates should he sell for a rupee to make 50% profit?
                
                        Ravi kumar said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                Suppose he sell x chocolates at the cost of 6 chocolates and gain profit or 20%.
By formula,
(6-x)/x*100 = 20.
x = 5.
                By formula,
(6-x)/x*100 = 20.
x = 5.
                        Nischal said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                6 chocolate for = 1 rupee.
1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.
//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.
1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.
So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.
                1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.
//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.
1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.
So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.
                        Goutam kumar said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                How many % to 10% loss on the sale price will be the purchase price?
                
                        Banty said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                120 is = 6.
1 is = 6/120.
100 is = 6/120*100.
= 5 answer.
                1 is = 6/120.
100 is = 6/120*100.
= 5 answer.
                        M.V.KRISHNA/Palvoncha said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                CP of 6 Toffees = Re.1 = 100ps.
Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).
Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.
We know SP=CP+P.
SP = 100+20 =120.
It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.
Now from question:
For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.
i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?
By Cross multiplying we get,
120*? = 100*6
? = 600/120
? = 5
So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.
                Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).
Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.
We know SP=CP+P.
SP = 100+20 =120.
It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.
Now from question:
For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.
i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?
By Cross multiplying we get,
120*? = 100*6
? = 600/120
? = 5
So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.
                        SantoshDalal said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                Hello friends.
We can do use this method or not?
120/100*x = 6
=> x = 6*100/120
=> x = 5
                We can do use this method or not?
120/100*x = 6
=> x = 6*100/120
=> x = 5
                        Mit said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                1 Rs is 100% then 20% is 1/5 so 5 is answer.
                
                        Ajay Naik said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                By selling toffees at 20 for a rupee a man loss 4%.
To gain 20% for Re 1 he must sell?
                To gain 20% for Re 1 he must sell?
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