Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

I wonder no one argued for answer 6!

See salesmen bought toffee at 100 paise @ 16.67 paise each.

For gaining 20% he must get 120 paise or the toffee worth 20 paise after getting his C.P.

If he sell 5 toffee @ 100 paise, then he have only one toffee which worth 16.67 paise as he bought, i.e 16.67% profit, not 20%.

How can we value a toffee of 20 paise unless he sell it? He didn't sell last toffee for 20 paise, so he didn't gain 20 paise. So the one toffee left worth 16.67. Thus the profit is 16.67 paise i.e. 16.67%.

If and only if he sell all 6 toffees in 120 paise, he can gain 20% toffee.

I don't understand your explanation, can some one elaborate more please.

Can someone please explain more?

100% + 20% (i.e profit) = 120% (for 6 toffees).

120% = 6.
1% = 6/120.
100% = (6/120)*100.

Value for 100% = 5.

Chain rule:

1Rs------ 6 toffees--------100%.

1Rs-------x toffees---------120%.

More Tofees per Rupee results less profit%. There it is inverse proportion.

1*6*100 = 1*x*120====> x = 5.

In question they have given 20%. Why your assuming 120%?

@Sunil.

That goes by the formula: SP = (100+gain%)*CP/100.

C.P of one toffees = 1/6 and S.P of one toffees = 120/100.1/6 = 1/5.

He must sold 5 toffees to get 20% profit.

C.P. of 1 toffee = 1/6 Rs.

Profit % = 20 %.

Now, profit % = (profit*100)/C.P.

So, profit = 20*(C.P.)/100.

Profit = 1/30 Rs for 1 toffee.

Now, S.P. = C.P.+profit.

S.P. = 1/6+1/30.
S.P. = 1/5 Rs for 1 toffee.

For S.P. = 1 Rs he has to sell 5 toffees.

Guys I think this may be simple for you.

Given 1 rupee = 6 toffees.

So to avoid complexions in calculations.

Let's multiply with 100 on both side.

100 rupees = 600 toffees.

Given profit = 20%.

Sp = Cp+P.
Sp = 100+20.
Sp = 120.

Now, no of toffees = 600/120 = 5.

Hope that you can understand easily. Thank you guys. All the best.