Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 13 of 22.
Farhat said:
1 decade ago
CP of 6 toffee = 1.
Gain = 20%.
Profit% = p*100/cp.
20 = p*100/1.
p = 20*1/100.
p = 1/5.
i.e; for 5 toffees for re. 1.
Gain = 20%.
Profit% = p*100/cp.
20 = p*100/1.
p = 20*1/100.
p = 1/5.
i.e; for 5 toffees for re. 1.
Neha said:
1 decade ago
How get 6/5?
Ashish Verma said:
1 decade ago
What would be the answer if I have given 20 Rupees I need to purchase 06 thing. All 06 thing total price should be 20.
Condition there should not be any thing in 0 OR decimals & less than 1 rupees and number should not be repeated mean if I have bought anything in price of 02 rupees than I can not purchase again anything in 02 Rupees.
Condition there should not be any thing in 0 OR decimals & less than 1 rupees and number should not be repeated mean if I have bought anything in price of 02 rupees than I can not purchase again anything in 02 Rupees.
Jay said:
1 decade ago
6/5 how it comes?
If loss is given for ex:- 0.44 and profit is given 0.25.
How to take it in fraction can anyone explain?
If loss is given for ex:- 0.44 and profit is given 0.25.
How to take it in fraction can anyone explain?
Subrata adhikary said:
1 decade ago
6 toffees in 1 rps.
Assume cp = 10 rps.
So, total toffees = 10*6 = 60.
Now sp = 12 rps (as 20% profit).
So, 12 rps sp of 60 toffees.
So, 1 rps sp = 60/12 = 5 answer.
(Here rps means rupee).
Assume cp = 10 rps.
So, total toffees = 10*6 = 60.
Now sp = 12 rps (as 20% profit).
So, 12 rps sp of 60 toffees.
So, 1 rps sp = 60/12 = 5 answer.
(Here rps means rupee).
Gopinath said:
1 decade ago
Bought sell.
1/6 = 100%, 1/? = 120% (Because need 20% gain so add 100+20%).
= 600 ? = 120.
So ? = 600/120.
? = 5.
Ans: 5.
1/6 = 100%, 1/? = 120% (Because need 20% gain so add 100+20%).
= 600 ? = 120.
So ? = 600/120.
? = 5.
Ans: 5.
Shaik saleem said:
1 decade ago
Hi All,
Six toffees for Re. 1 = 1/6 = 0.166.
0.17x20% profit = 0.033.
0.033+0.166 = 0.199 approx 0.20.
Now for 1 Re. 1/0.20 = 5.
Six toffees for Re. 1 = 1/6 = 0.166.
0.17x20% profit = 0.033.
0.033+0.166 = 0.199 approx 0.20.
Now for 1 Re. 1/0.20 = 5.
Rahul Kumar said:
1 decade ago
Since 1 Rs ----------> 6 Toffees.
Now 1+20% of 1 = 1+(1/5) = 6/5 Rs.
Means that after gaining 20%,
6/5 Rs ----------> 6 toffee.
1 Rs -----------> 6*(5/6) toffees = 5 Toffees.
Now 1+20% of 1 = 1+(1/5) = 6/5 Rs.
Means that after gaining 20%,
6/5 Rs ----------> 6 toffee.
1 Rs -----------> 6*(5/6) toffees = 5 Toffees.
Hariom said:
10 years ago
By selling 45 lemons a vendors loses a sum equal to the selling price of 3 lemons. Find the loss percentage.
Victor said:
10 years ago
How does 6/5 is interchanged into 5/6 at the last step?
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