Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
3
4
5
6
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1

S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. 6
5

For Rs. 6 , toffees sold = 6.
5

For Re. 1, toffees sold = 6 x 5 = 5.
6

Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8

Discussion:
211 comments Page 8 of 22.

Shalu said:   1 decade ago
Can anyone please explain :

See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100.

So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.

Saugat said:   1 decade ago
6 toffes cost=Rs 1=100 paisa
profit t0 be made =20% Of 100
in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa
so,60 paisa =3 toffe
1 paisa=3/60
100 paisa=(3/60)*100
=5 toffes.

Pooja choubisa said:   1 decade ago
CP of 6 Toffees= Rs 1.

SP of 6 Toffees = 120% of Rs 1 = 120/100*1 =6/5*1 =Rs 6/5 Toffees sold 6*5/6=5 .

Iamateur said:   1 decade ago
C.P. of 6 toffee s---> 1 rs.
Given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 120%
120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
=1.2 rs.

Now consider only S.P

1.2 rs--> 6 toffee
1 rs ---> ? toffee

6/1.2 =5.

As the question is asked to find only SP so for 5 toffees 1rs.

Aditya said:   1 decade ago
C.P. of 6 toffees = Rs.1.

S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Rs.1 =6/5.

For Rs.1 ---------- 6 toffee.

Rs. 6/5 -------- 6*(5/6)=5 toffees. ;120% means 6/5 Rs.

Motilal said:   1 decade ago
Best Solution:

Cost price of 6 tofees = Re.1.
Then, cost price of 1 tofee = Re. 1/6.
Profit is given 20%.

We know selling price = (100+gain%)*c.p./100.
Then, s.p. of 1 tofee = 120*(1/6)/100 i.e. 1/5.

now,
At Re.1/5 we sell 1 tofee.

At Re. 1 we must sell 1*(5/1) i.e. 5 tofees to gain 20% profit.

Mukesh said:   1 decade ago
DOUBT:

How do you people say "S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of 1".
When the given question is S.P of X toffees = 120% of 1".

Gomathy said:   1 decade ago
C.P of 6 toffees = RS.1.
Gain=20%(i.e)0.2.

0.2X = Rs.1.
X = 1/0.2.
= 5.

Please suggest will this be a right approach?

Mahendra sharma said:   1 decade ago
On selling of 6 toffee, profit is 1 toffee. What is the percentage profit ?

Dadasaheb said:   1 decade ago
6 toffees for 1 Rs.
So the C.P. of 1 toffee=1/6 Rs.
Gain%=(gain*100)/C.P.

Now given gain%=20.

So,
20=(gain*100)/(1/6)
20*(1/6)=(gain*100).
20/6=gain*100
10/3=gain*100
10/300=gain

1/30=gain.

Now,
Gain=S.P.-C.P
1/30=S.P.-1/6
1/30+1/6=S.P.
(1+5)/30=S.P.
1/5=S.P.

S.P.=1/5 R.S.

Therefore,
S.P. of 5 toffees is 1 Rs.
So Answer is 5 toffees.


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