Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
213 comments Page 8 of 22.
Selvaraj said:
1 decade ago
20% of 1 is .2.
Hence to meet the profit with the cost price totally it will be 1.2.
Hence 6 toffees are there the profit should be 20%.
Divide those 6 toffees by 1.2.
6/1.2 = 5.
Hence to meet the profit with the cost price totally it will be 1.2.
Hence 6 toffees are there the profit should be 20%.
Divide those 6 toffees by 1.2.
6/1.2 = 5.
Iam hargun said:
1 decade ago
6 tofee for 1 re
1 tofee for 1/6 = .16
g% = g*100/c.p
gain= s.p - c.p
s.p = x
g%=20
20 = (x-.16)*100/.16
x=.192
s.p of 1 =.192
for 5 =.96
there fore 5 tofee
1 tofee for 1/6 = .16
g% = g*100/c.p
gain= s.p - c.p
s.p = x
g%=20
20 = (x-.16)*100/.16
x=.192
s.p of 1 =.192
for 5 =.96
there fore 5 tofee
Shalu said:
1 decade ago
Can anyone please explain :
See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100.
So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.
See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100.
So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.
Saugat said:
1 decade ago
6 toffes cost=Rs 1=100 paisa
profit t0 be made =20% Of 100
in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa
so,60 paisa =3 toffe
1 paisa=3/60
100 paisa=(3/60)*100
=5 toffes.
profit t0 be made =20% Of 100
in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa
so,60 paisa =3 toffe
1 paisa=3/60
100 paisa=(3/60)*100
=5 toffes.
Pooja choubisa said:
1 decade ago
CP of 6 Toffees= Rs 1.
SP of 6 Toffees = 120% of Rs 1 = 120/100*1 =6/5*1 =Rs 6/5 Toffees sold 6*5/6=5 .
SP of 6 Toffees = 120% of Rs 1 = 120/100*1 =6/5*1 =Rs 6/5 Toffees sold 6*5/6=5 .
Iamateur said:
1 decade ago
C.P. of 6 toffee s---> 1 rs.
Given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 120%
120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
=1.2 rs.
Now consider only S.P
1.2 rs--> 6 toffee
1 rs ---> ? toffee
6/1.2 =5.
As the question is asked to find only SP so for 5 toffees 1rs.
Given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 120%
120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
=1.2 rs.
Now consider only S.P
1.2 rs--> 6 toffee
1 rs ---> ? toffee
6/1.2 =5.
As the question is asked to find only SP so for 5 toffees 1rs.
Aditya said:
1 decade ago
C.P. of 6 toffees = Rs.1.
S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Rs.1 =6/5.
For Rs.1 ---------- 6 toffee.
Rs. 6/5 -------- 6*(5/6)=5 toffees. ;120% means 6/5 Rs.
S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Rs.1 =6/5.
For Rs.1 ---------- 6 toffee.
Rs. 6/5 -------- 6*(5/6)=5 toffees. ;120% means 6/5 Rs.
Motilal said:
1 decade ago
Best Solution:
Cost price of 6 tofees = Re.1.
Then, cost price of 1 tofee = Re. 1/6.
Profit is given 20%.
We know selling price = (100+gain%)*c.p./100.
Then, s.p. of 1 tofee = 120*(1/6)/100 i.e. 1/5.
now,
At Re.1/5 we sell 1 tofee.
At Re. 1 we must sell 1*(5/1) i.e. 5 tofees to gain 20% profit.
Cost price of 6 tofees = Re.1.
Then, cost price of 1 tofee = Re. 1/6.
Profit is given 20%.
We know selling price = (100+gain%)*c.p./100.
Then, s.p. of 1 tofee = 120*(1/6)/100 i.e. 1/5.
now,
At Re.1/5 we sell 1 tofee.
At Re. 1 we must sell 1*(5/1) i.e. 5 tofees to gain 20% profit.
Mukesh said:
1 decade ago
DOUBT:
How do you people say "S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of 1".
When the given question is S.P of X toffees = 120% of 1".
How do you people say "S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of 1".
When the given question is S.P of X toffees = 120% of 1".
Gomathy said:
1 decade ago
C.P of 6 toffees = RS.1.
Gain=20%(i.e)0.2.
0.2X = Rs.1.
X = 1/0.2.
= 5.
Please suggest will this be a right approach?
Gain=20%(i.e)0.2.
0.2X = Rs.1.
X = 1/0.2.
= 5.
Please suggest will this be a right approach?
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