Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
5 |
For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
5 |
For Re. 1, toffees sold = | ![]() |
6 x | 5 | ![]() |
= 5. |
6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 7 of 22.
Mahesh said:
1 decade ago
Profit%=(profit/cp)*100
profit%=20
cp=1
profit=?
20=(profit/1)100
profit=20/100
profit=1/5
He can sell 5 for 1 RS.
profit%=20
cp=1
profit=?
20=(profit/1)100
profit=20/100
profit=1/5
He can sell 5 for 1 RS.
Harish Raj said:
1 decade ago
Ismail -- Out of an income of Rs. 15, 000. Diya spends 10, 200. What percent income do save?
15000-10200=4800
4800*100/15000 = 32%
Diya saved 32% of her salary.
15000-10200=4800
4800*100/15000 = 32%
Diya saved 32% of her salary.
Sanju said:
1 decade ago
A watch sold for Rs 448 gives a profit of only 12%. Find the profit % if the selling price had been Rs 512.
Prabhath said:
1 decade ago
A man bought 6 toffees for 1 rs...
sold it for 20% profit...so he sold it for 1.2 rs...
so to get 1 rs back he must sell 5 toffees...simple as that..
ie 6 toffees cost 1.2 so 1 toffee cost 1.2/6=.2
0.2*5=1...
So answer is 5.
sold it for 20% profit...so he sold it for 1.2 rs...
so to get 1 rs back he must sell 5 toffees...simple as that..
ie 6 toffees cost 1.2 so 1 toffee cost 1.2/6=.2
0.2*5=1...
So answer is 5.
Vennila said:
1 decade ago
How you use 6*5/6. I can't understand that ?
Sachin said:
1 decade ago
Let's assume vendor bought 60 tofees.
So he spent Rs.10 (1/6*60).
Now he want 20% profit on Rs.10 i.e Rs.12.
So now he must sell that 60 tofees for Rs.12
So for 1 rupee 5 (60/12) tofees has to sell.
So he spent Rs.10 (1/6*60).
Now he want 20% profit on Rs.10 i.e Rs.12.
So now he must sell that 60 tofees for Rs.12
So for 1 rupee 5 (60/12) tofees has to sell.
Rajkumar said:
1 decade ago
Its simple
lets assume we have 6 apples and we need to distribute each apple to a person.
in case we took one apple from that
then we can able to distribute only to 5 persons.
in the same way
1re ------> 6 toffees
have to gain 20%.
0.2rs(20paise) is the 20% from 1re
take that 0.2 for urself that is ur gain
so we can sell only for 0.8 rs in the place of 1 re
so
for 1re - - - - -> 6 toffees
for 0.8 rs - - - -> ?
(0.8*6)/1 = 4.8 = 5(round it off to nearest integer). this method is applicable to all kinda problems like this
lets assume we have 6 apples and we need to distribute each apple to a person.
in case we took one apple from that
then we can able to distribute only to 5 persons.
in the same way
1re ------> 6 toffees
have to gain 20%.
0.2rs(20paise) is the 20% from 1re
take that 0.2 for urself that is ur gain
so we can sell only for 0.8 rs in the place of 1 re
so
for 1re - - - - -> 6 toffees
for 0.8 rs - - - -> ?
(0.8*6)/1 = 4.8 = 5(round it off to nearest integer). this method is applicable to all kinda problems like this
Vaibhav More said:
1 decade ago
How do you take 120%.
Selvaraj said:
1 decade ago
20% of 1 is .2.
Hence to meet the profit with the cost price totally it will be 1.2.
Hence 6 toffees are there the profit should be 20%.
Divide those 6 toffees by 1.2.
6/1.2 = 5.
Hence to meet the profit with the cost price totally it will be 1.2.
Hence 6 toffees are there the profit should be 20%.
Divide those 6 toffees by 1.2.
6/1.2 = 5.
Iam hargun said:
1 decade ago
6 tofee for 1 re
1 tofee for 1/6 = .16
g% = g*100/c.p
gain= s.p - c.p
s.p = x
g%=20
20 = (x-.16)*100/.16
x=.192
s.p of 1 =.192
for 5 =.96
there fore 5 tofee
1 tofee for 1/6 = .16
g% = g*100/c.p
gain= s.p - c.p
s.p = x
g%=20
20 = (x-.16)*100/.16
x=.192
s.p of 1 =.192
for 5 =.96
there fore 5 tofee
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