Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. of each article be Re. 1 C.P. of x articles = Rs. x.
S.P. of x articles = Rs. 20.
Profit = Rs. (20 - x).
 |
 |
20 - x | x 100 = 25 |  |
| x |
2000 - 100x = 25x
125x = 2000
x = 16.
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/sidqvjUoZxY
Discussion:
353 comments Page 23 of 36.
Zia said:
8 years ago
Thanks @Ajay Choudhary.
Santanu said:
8 years ago
This can be done in a simple way:
Say CP is 100, thus SP is 125 (as 25% gain).
According to the condition,
20X100 = 125X x
or, x = 2000/125 = 16 (Ans: b).
Say CP is 100, thus SP is 125 (as 25% gain).
According to the condition,
20X100 = 125X x
or, x = 2000/125 = 16 (Ans: b).
Vinuta said:
8 years ago
Take 20 * c.p = y = > c.p = y/20;
And x * s.p = y = >s.p = y/x;
w.k.t profit% = (100*profit)/c.p;
profit = ((profit%) * c.p)/100;
profit = (25 * c.p)/100;
also profit = s.p - c.p.
(25 * c.p)/100 = (y/x) - (y/20);
= (20 * c.p)/x-c.p;
Take c.p as common
(25 * c.p)/100 = c.p((20/x)-1)
c.p get cancelled
Now,
25/100 = (20/x)-1;
1/4 = (20/x)-1;
(1/4)+1 = 20/x;
5/4 = 20/x;
x = 20*4/5
x = 80/5;
x = 16.
And x * s.p = y = >s.p = y/x;
w.k.t profit% = (100*profit)/c.p;
profit = ((profit%) * c.p)/100;
profit = (25 * c.p)/100;
also profit = s.p - c.p.
(25 * c.p)/100 = (y/x) - (y/20);
= (20 * c.p)/x-c.p;
Take c.p as common
(25 * c.p)/100 = c.p((20/x)-1)
c.p get cancelled
Now,
25/100 = (20/x)-1;
1/4 = (20/x)-1;
(1/4)+1 = 20/x;
5/4 = 20/x;
x = 20*4/5
x = 80/5;
x = 16.
SM JAHID said:
8 years ago
Let,
The cp of each article is 1 tk.
The cp of 20 article is = 20 tk.
By the quetion,
The selling price of X article is 20tk.
The cp of 1 article is = 20/X.
The cp of 1 article = 20/x * 100/125.
= 16/X.
Now, 16/X = 1.
So, X = 16.
The cp of each article is 1 tk.
The cp of 20 article is = 20 tk.
By the quetion,
The selling price of X article is 20tk.
The cp of 1 article is = 20/X.
The cp of 1 article = 20/x * 100/125.
= 16/X.
Now, 16/X = 1.
So, X = 16.
Lingaraj said:
8 years ago
Thank you all for the given explanation.
Chintu jareda said:
8 years ago
Let, the cost price of one article is = C.P.
Then cost price of 20 article is = 20 * C.P.
And cost price of x article will be =x * C.P.
Given that % profit is 25%.i.e.,prifit = 25% of C.P.
Now we know that, selling price=cost price+profit = 1.25 * C.P.
Hence, selling price of x articles = x * (1.25 * C.P).
Given that s.p. of x article =c.p. of 20article.
x * (1.25 * C.P.) = 20 * C.P.
x = 20/1.25 = 16 Ans.
Then cost price of 20 article is = 20 * C.P.
And cost price of x article will be =x * C.P.
Given that % profit is 25%.i.e.,prifit = 25% of C.P.
Now we know that, selling price=cost price+profit = 1.25 * C.P.
Hence, selling price of x articles = x * (1.25 * C.P).
Given that s.p. of x article =c.p. of 20article.
x * (1.25 * C.P.) = 20 * C.P.
x = 20/1.25 = 16 Ans.
Suman Sourav said:
8 years ago
If I bought 20 article and sell 16 article that means 4 article saved, gain 25% (125=20 equ i and 100= x.....Equ 2 ) req article 16 will get easily.
Usha said:
8 years ago
Ans: d.
By using the formula.
Sp=(100+gain%)*cp/100.
Here cp of 20 articles = sp of x articles.
So,
Cp of 1 article = sp of x/20 articles.
X/20=(100+25)*1/100,
=>x=25.
By using the formula.
Sp=(100+gain%)*cp/100.
Here cp of 20 articles = sp of x articles.
So,
Cp of 1 article = sp of x/20 articles.
X/20=(100+25)*1/100,
=>x=25.
Vff said:
8 years ago
why we assume cp =1?
Can anybody explain it?
Can anybody explain it?
Aravind said:
8 years ago
Can't understand. Please explain me.
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