Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 1)
1.
Alfred buys an old scooter for Rs. 4700 and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for Rs. 5800, his gain percent is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Cost Price (C.P.) = Rs. (4700 + 800) = Rs. 5500.
Selling Price (S.P.) = Rs. 5800.
Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.) = Rs.(5800 - 5500) = Rs. 300.
| Gain % = |  |
300 | x 100 |  % |
= 5 | 5 | % |
| 5500 | 11 |
Discussion:
145 comments Page 12 of 15.
Rani Singh said:
9 years ago
His sp = 5800.
CP = 4700 + 800 = 5500.
Gain = Sp - cp.
Gain = 5800 - 5500.
Gain = 300.
Den we want to find gain%.
Gain% = gain * 100/vo.
Gain% = 300 * 100 / 5500.
After calculation,
We get 60/11.
And this no. Also write as option B.
CP = 4700 + 800 = 5500.
Gain = Sp - cp.
Gain = 5800 - 5500.
Gain = 300.
Den we want to find gain%.
Gain% = gain * 100/vo.
Gain% = 300 * 100 / 5500.
After calculation,
We get 60/11.
And this no. Also write as option B.
Anurag rocks said:
9 years ago
60/11 can also b written as 5 5/11. Because if we simplify this mixed fraction. That is 11 * 5 + 5/11 = 60/11 only.
Kevin Wood said:
9 years ago
See we got 60/11 in above solutions.
Now if you are dividing 60 by 11 you will get 5 has a quotient and 5 has a remainder.
Therefore 5 5/11.
Or you can see that in 60/11,11 is the divisor and there is only one 11 has a divisor in the answer which is option B). You get the answer simply.
Now if you are dividing 60 by 11 you will get 5 has a quotient and 5 has a remainder.
Therefore 5 5/11.
Or you can see that in 60/11,11 is the divisor and there is only one 11 has a divisor in the answer which is option B). You get the answer simply.
Chandu Ramayya said:
9 years ago
Let's forget about formula.
Its given, total cost price(original cost + repair) = 5500.
selling price = 5800.
Difference = 300.
Thus, we need to find how much 300 be of 5800.
Let, 10% of 5800 = 580. So options C& D are eliminated since 300 is less than and not equal to 580.
Coming to option A, 1% of 5800 = 58(50 + 8).
Thus 4(58) = 236.
So the ultimate option be B.
Its given, total cost price(original cost + repair) = 5500.
selling price = 5800.
Difference = 300.
Thus, we need to find how much 300 be of 5800.
Let, 10% of 5800 = 580. So options C& D are eliminated since 300 is less than and not equal to 580.
Coming to option A, 1% of 5800 = 58(50 + 8).
Thus 4(58) = 236.
So the ultimate option be B.
Sudhakar said:
9 years ago
My buying cost price Rs. 100/-, my selling price Rs. 115/- so now I want to know the % of on sales price. Can you find the solution?
Gowri ravi said:
9 years ago
Here we use 800 rupees for the repairing so it becomes a loss for the buyer the how come adding with cost price? I can't understand.
Madhusudhana rao said:
9 years ago
Please tell me the shortcut to solve this.
Rango said:
9 years ago
@Sudhakar.
The selling price is Rs 115.
Cost price is Rs 100.
Actually, profit is 15.
Then, % of profit is 15.
The selling price is Rs 115.
Cost price is Rs 100.
Actually, profit is 15.
Then, % of profit is 15.
Kenchappa said:
9 years ago
Please, Could anyone tell me any shortcut way of solving this type of problems?
Belekiran said:
9 years ago
Thank you all for explanation and simplification.
Nice method, Thanks @Munna.
Nice method, Thanks @Munna.
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