Electrical Engineering - Ohm's Law - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Ohm's Law - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
Approximately how many milliamperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V source and 6.8 k
of resistance?

Discussion:
29 comments Page 1 of 3.
Pramod shinva said:
1 decade ago
Before convert the kohm TO ohms. Due to over formula is suitable for ohms.
I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms).
I = 40/6800.
= 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA).
= 0.00588*1000.
= 5.8.
= So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA.
I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms).
I = 40/6800.
= 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA).
= 0.00588*1000.
= 5.8.
= So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA.
KOUSHAL KUMAR BAIRWA said:
1 decade ago
Given that:
R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800.
And V=40 volt.
And the ohms low is said (v) = IR.
THAN I=V/R ..........1.
PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1.
I = 40/6800
= 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m).
= 5.88mA.
R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800.
And V=40 volt.
And the ohms low is said (v) = IR.
THAN I=V/R ..........1.
PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1.
I = 40/6800
= 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m).
= 5.88mA.
Imrosekhan said:
9 years ago
As we know ohms law v = ir.
We have to calculate i so i = v/r.
Substitute those values in the above formulae.
40v/6.8 * powerten(-3) = 5.88 it is near to 5.9.
We have to calculate i so i = v/r.
Substitute those values in the above formulae.
40v/6.8 * powerten(-3) = 5.88 it is near to 5.9.
Vinay said:
1 decade ago
To solve this question, we must covert the kilo ohm resistance in ohm resistance & then solve it whatever is the answer convert it into the milliampere.
Gabriel said:
1 decade ago
We know V=IR.
I = V/R in this case,
R = 6.8*10^3.
Instead of wasting precious time.
I = 40/6.8= 5.88.
Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so.
I = V/R in this case,
R = 6.8*10^3.
Instead of wasting precious time.
I = 40/6.8= 5.88.
Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so.
Manish khandekar said:
6 years ago
Convert 40V to KV and calculate the current.
I = V/R. =40 * 10^3/6.8 *10^3= 5.88.
So, approximately 5.9 is the correct answer.
I = V/R. =40 * 10^3/6.8 *10^3= 5.88.
So, approximately 5.9 is the correct answer.
Mohibullah Shah said:
3 years ago
I = ?
V = 40V
R = 6.8 K Ohm
R = 6800 Ohm.
Since
I = V/R
I = 40/6800,
I = 0.00588,
I = 0.00588 (10^3)(10^-3)
I = 5.9 mA.
V = 40V
R = 6.8 K Ohm
R = 6800 Ohm.
Since
I = V/R
I = 40/6800,
I = 0.00588,
I = 0.00588 (10^3)(10^-3)
I = 5.9 mA.
(4)
Jefrey said:
1 decade ago
Given:
I= V/R.
I=?
V= 40V.
R= 6.8 kilo ohms.
Solution:
By using ohms law.
I= V/R.
I= 40/6.8.
I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA.
I= V/R.
I=?
V= 40V.
R= 6.8 kilo ohms.
Solution:
By using ohms law.
I= V/R.
I= 40/6.8.
I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA.
Valli said:
1 decade ago
The resistance value is only represent as in ohm. Then how the representation here will be ohm in the calculation?
Pooja said:
1 decade ago
Given that,
V = 40v,
R = 6.8Kohm,
I = V/R.
I = 40/6.8*(10^-3).
I = 5.882mA.
That is right answer.
V = 40v,
R = 6.8Kohm,
I = V/R.
I = 40/6.8*(10^-3).
I = 5.882mA.
That is right answer.
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