Electrical Engineering - Ohm's Law - Discussion

Discussion :: Ohm's Law - General Questions (Q.No.5)

5. 

Approximately how many milliamperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V source and 6.8 k of resistance?

[A]. 27.2 mA
[B]. 59 mA
[C]. 5.9 mA
[D]. 590 mA

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.

Projit said: (Jan 20, 2011)  
I=V/R
=40/6.8
=5.88

Valli said: (Feb 12, 2011)  
The resistance value is only represent as in ohm. Then how the representation here will be ohm in the calculation?

Vinay said: (Feb 23, 2011)  
To solve this question, we must covert the kilo ohm resistance in ohm resistance & then solve it whatever is the answer convert it into the milliampere.

Raut Mahesh said: (Jun 28, 2011)  
I=V/R
I=40/(6.8*10^3)
I=5.88*10^-3 A
OR
I=5.88 mA

Anand said: (Jul 22, 2011)  
Nice answer Raut mahesh

Jayesh Punekar said: (Jul 24, 2011)  
I=V/R
I=40/6.8
I=5.88 mA

Priya said: (Jun 1, 2012)  
V=IR
I=V/R
V=40
R=6.8
I=5.9mA

Sunny said: (Aug 27, 2012)  
v=40v
r=6.8kv=6.8*10^3=6800
i=40/6800=0.059A=5.9A

Prabhat said: (Oct 12, 2012)  
V=40v.

R=6.8kv=6.8*1000=6800 ohm.

I=40/6800=0.00588A.

So 0.00588A=0.00588*1000=5.88 or 5.9mA.

Pooja said: (Jul 19, 2013)  
Given that,

V = 40v,
R = 6.8Kohm,
I = V/R.

I = 40/6.8*(10^-3).

I = 5.882mA.

That is right answer.

Pramod Shinva said: (Aug 4, 2013)  
Before convert the kohm TO ohms. Due to over formula is suitable for ohms.

I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms).

I = 40/6800.

= 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA).

= 0.00588*1000.

= 5.8.

= So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA.

Gabriel said: (Sep 9, 2013)  
We know V=IR.

I = V/R in this case,

R = 6.8*10^3.

Instead of wasting precious time.

I = 40/6.8= 5.88.

Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so.

S.Hari said: (May 2, 2014)  
I = V/R.
I = 40/6800.
= 5.88mA.

Jefrey said: (Aug 12, 2014)  
Given:

I= V/R.
I=?
V= 40V.
R= 6.8 kilo ohms.

Solution:

By using ohms law.
I= V/R.
I= 40/6.8.
I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA.

Venkat said: (Sep 11, 2014)  
V = 40v.
R = 6.8 Kohms.
I = 40/6.8.
= 5.88mA.

Koushal Kumar Bairwa said: (Oct 2, 2014)  
Given that:

R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800.
And V=40 volt.

And the ohms low is said (v) = IR.
THAN I=V/R ..........1.

PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1.

I = 40/6800
= 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m).
= 5.88mA.

Sanjay said: (Feb 11, 2015)  
5.88 = 5.9. It is correct.

Olisemeke Job Vitalis said: (Jun 21, 2016)  
I = v/R

=> 40/6800
=> 0.00588235 x 1000
=> 5.88

I = 5.9

Mikemike said: (Aug 9, 2016)  
I = V/R = 40V/6.8k ohms = 5.88, or 5.9.

Basavaraj Olekar said: (Oct 22, 2016)  
Because ohms law I = v/r, 40/6.8.

Rakesh Solanki said: (Nov 3, 2016)  
I = V/R = 40 V/6.8 ohms = 5.88, or 5.9.

Imrosekhan said: (Nov 16, 2016)  
As we know ohms law v = ir.
We have to calculate i so i = v/r.
Substitute those values in the above formulae.

40v/6.8 * powerten(-3) = 5.88 it is near to 5.9.

Tarikul Islam said: (Feb 9, 2017)  
Thanks to all your explanation.

Shakti Sourav said: (Jun 2, 2017)  
V=IR, SO I = V/R.

THEN I = 40/6.8, I = 5.88-> Answer.

Abhishek said: (Jul 31, 2018)  
Nice explanations, Thanks all.

Manish Khandekar said: (Jun 21, 2019)  
Convert 40V to KV and calculate the current.
I = V/R. =40 * 10^3/6.8 *10^3= 5.88.

So, approximately 5.9 is the correct answer.

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