### Discussion :: Ohm's Law - General Questions (Q.No.5)

Projit said: (Jan 20, 2011) | |

I=V/R =40/6.8 =5.88 |

Valli said: (Feb 12, 2011) | |

The resistance value is only represent as in ohm. Then how the representation here will be ohm in the calculation? |

Vinay said: (Feb 23, 2011) | |

To solve this question, we must covert the kilo ohm resistance in ohm resistance & then solve it whatever is the answer convert it into the milliampere. |

Raut Mahesh said: (Jun 28, 2011) | |

I=V/R I=40/(6.8*10^3) I=5.88*10^-3 A OR I=5.88 mA |

Anand said: (Jul 22, 2011) | |

Nice answer Raut mahesh |

Jayesh Punekar said: (Jul 24, 2011) | |

I=V/R I=40/6.8 I=5.88 mA |

Priya said: (Jun 1, 2012) | |

V=IR I=V/R V=40 R=6.8 I=5.9mA |

Sunny said: (Aug 27, 2012) | |

v=40v r=6.8kv=6.8*10^3=6800 i=40/6800=0.059A=5.9A |

Prabhat said: (Oct 12, 2012) | |

V=40v. R=6.8kv=6.8*1000=6800 ohm. I=40/6800=0.00588A. So 0.00588A=0.00588*1000=5.88 or 5.9mA. |

Pooja said: (Jul 19, 2013) | |

Given that, V = 40v, R = 6.8Kohm, I = V/R. I = 40/6.8*(10^-3). I = 5.882mA. That is right answer. |

Pramod Shinva said: (Aug 4, 2013) | |

Before convert the kohm TO ohms. Due to over formula is suitable for ohms. I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms). I = 40/6800. = 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA). = 0.00588*1000. = 5.8. = So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA. |

Gabriel said: (Sep 9, 2013) | |

We know V=IR. I = V/R in this case, R = 6.8*10^3. Instead of wasting precious time. I = 40/6.8= 5.88. Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so. |

S.Hari said: (May 2, 2014) | |

I = V/R. I = 40/6800. = 5.88mA. |

Jefrey said: (Aug 12, 2014) | |

Given: I= V/R. I=? V= 40V. R= 6.8 kilo ohms. Solution: By using ohms law. I= V/R. I= 40/6.8. I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA. |

Venkat said: (Sep 11, 2014) | |

V = 40v. R = 6.8 Kohms. I = 40/6.8. = 5.88mA. |

Koushal Kumar Bairwa said: (Oct 2, 2014) | |

Given that: R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800. And V=40 volt. And the ohms low is said (v) = IR. THAN I=V/R ..........1. PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1. I = 40/6800 = 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m). = 5.88mA. |

Sanjay said: (Feb 11, 2015) | |

5.88 = 5.9. It is correct. |

Olisemeke Job Vitalis said: (Jun 21, 2016) | |

I = v/R => 40/6800 => 0.00588235 x 1000 => 5.88 I = 5.9 |

Mikemike said: (Aug 9, 2016) | |

I = V/R = 40V/6.8k ohms = 5.88, or 5.9. |

Basavaraj Olekar said: (Oct 22, 2016) | |

Because ohms law I = v/r, 40/6.8. |

Rakesh Solanki said: (Nov 3, 2016) | |

I = V/R = 40 V/6.8 ohms = 5.88, or 5.9. |

Imrosekhan said: (Nov 16, 2016) | |

As we know ohms law v = ir. We have to calculate i so i = v/r. Substitute those values in the above formulae. 40v/6.8 * powerten(-3) = 5.88 it is near to 5.9. |

Tarikul Islam said: (Feb 9, 2017) | |

Thanks to all your explanation. |

Shakti Sourav said: (Jun 2, 2017) | |

V=IR, SO I = V/R. THEN I = 40/6.8, I = 5.88-> Answer. |

Abhishek said: (Jul 31, 2018) | |

Nice explanations, Thanks all. |

Manish Khandekar said: (Jun 21, 2019) | |

Convert 40V to KV and calculate the current. I = V/R. =40 * 10^3/6.8 *10^3= 5.88. So, approximately 5.9 is the correct answer. |

Gavin said: (Nov 28, 2019) | |

1A = 1000 mA. The result of the Ohm's Law is in A (ampere). So 5.88 A = 5880 mA. Am I doing wrong? |

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