Electrical Engineering - Ohm's Law - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Ohm's Law - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
Approximately how many milliamperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V source and 6.8 k
of resistance?
of resistance?Discussion:
29 comments Page 2 of 3.
Mikemike said:
9 years ago
I = V/R = 40V/6.8k ohms = 5.88, or 5.9.
Olisemeke Job Vitalis said:
9 years ago
I = v/R
=> 40/6800
=> 0.00588235 x 1000
=> 5.88
I = 5.9
=> 40/6800
=> 0.00588235 x 1000
=> 5.88
I = 5.9
Sanjay said:
1 decade ago
5.88 = 5.9. It is correct.
KOUSHAL KUMAR BAIRWA said:
1 decade ago
Given that:
R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800.
And V=40 volt.
And the ohms low is said (v) = IR.
THAN I=V/R ..........1.
PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1.
I = 40/6800
= 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m).
= 5.88mA.
R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800.
And V=40 volt.
And the ohms low is said (v) = IR.
THAN I=V/R ..........1.
PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1.
I = 40/6800
= 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m).
= 5.88mA.
Venkat said:
1 decade ago
V = 40v.
R = 6.8 Kohms.
I = 40/6.8.
= 5.88mA.
R = 6.8 Kohms.
I = 40/6.8.
= 5.88mA.
Jefrey said:
1 decade ago
Given:
I= V/R.
I=?
V= 40V.
R= 6.8 kilo ohms.
Solution:
By using ohms law.
I= V/R.
I= 40/6.8.
I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA.
I= V/R.
I=?
V= 40V.
R= 6.8 kilo ohms.
Solution:
By using ohms law.
I= V/R.
I= 40/6.8.
I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA.
S.HARI said:
1 decade ago
I = V/R.
I = 40/6800.
= 5.88mA.
I = 40/6800.
= 5.88mA.
Gabriel said:
1 decade ago
We know V=IR.
I = V/R in this case,
R = 6.8*10^3.
Instead of wasting precious time.
I = 40/6.8= 5.88.
Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so.
I = V/R in this case,
R = 6.8*10^3.
Instead of wasting precious time.
I = 40/6.8= 5.88.
Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so.
Pramod shinva said:
1 decade ago
Before convert the kohm TO ohms. Due to over formula is suitable for ohms.
I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms).
I = 40/6800.
= 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA).
= 0.00588*1000.
= 5.8.
= So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA.
I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms).
I = 40/6800.
= 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA).
= 0.00588*1000.
= 5.8.
= So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA.
Pooja said:
1 decade ago
Given that,
V = 40v,
R = 6.8Kohm,
I = V/R.
I = 40/6.8*(10^-3).
I = 5.882mA.
That is right answer.
V = 40v,
R = 6.8Kohm,
I = V/R.
I = 40/6.8*(10^-3).
I = 5.882mA.
That is right answer.
Post your comments here:
Quick links
Quantitative Aptitude
Verbal (English)
Reasoning
Programming
Interview
Placement Papers