### Discussion :: Bar Charts - Bar Chart 15 (Q.No.1)

- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 1
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 2
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 3
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 4
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 5
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 6
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 7
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 8
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 9
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 10
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 11
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 12
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 13
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 14
- «« Bar Charts - Bar Chart 15
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 16
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 17
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 18
- Bar Charts - Bar Chart 19

Study the following bar chart and answer the questions carefully.

Sales Turnover of 5 Companies (in Rs. crores)

Chaithanya said: (Nov 10, 2010) | |

In this the explanation of q, 1 is not clear please explain briefly. |

Aanya said: (Jan 7, 2011) | |

The explanation is not clear, can anyone explain. |

Aanya said: (Jan 7, 2011) | |

Its ok i got it , the ans is 14.7% |

Sriram said: (Sep 12, 2011) | |

Give the analysis of solution please. |

Sai said: (Jan 19, 2012) | |

Can anyone explain it clearly. |

Govind said: (Jan 30, 2012) | |

Add up all the 2001+2002 sales turnover carefully, and all the 2002+2003 values. Than find the change percentage thereafter you will get the answer not accurately 14.68%. |

Parthaurfgo0Fy said: (Feb 16, 2012) | |

Add all the sales of both 2001-2002 and 2002-2003 separately. And find out the difference. And divide the difference by 2001-2002 add up sales. Mind it, during summation of the sales, all the sale are not exactly of round fig. i.e. it may contain 810, 840, 960 like that. Thank you. :). |

Prasant said: (Feb 23, 2012) | |

2001-02: approx. 1100+900+650+1150+950 = 4750 2002-03: approx. 850+750+700+1050+700 = 4050 % change = (4750-4050)*100/4750 = 14.73% (approx)Hence, chose the near one option. Absolute value = (approx)4750-4050 = 700 (chose the near one option) |

Chirayu said: (Sep 16, 2012) | |

{(4750-4050)*100}/4750 = 14.68 |

Pradeep said: (Apr 26, 2014) | |

Like other bar charts, value should be given on the top of lines to calculate. Approximately, everyone has given the right calculation: 4750-4050 = 700. (700/4750)*100 = 14.73% near to 14.68%. Option (B). |

Msl said: (Feb 22, 2018) | |

How to take denominator value? |

Sharmila said: (Jul 29, 2019) | |

Denominator value is the base value. Base value is the one with which we compare the growth. Here, in this case, the value has been changed from the year 2001-02 to 2002 -03. So, 2001-02 total is taken as the base value. |

Chris said: (Dec 29, 2019) | |

There are no precise numbers, thus meaning you have to give an estimate to where the chart is? |

#### Post your comments here:

Name *:

Email : (optional)

» Your comments will be displayed only after manual approval.