Data Interpretation - Bar Charts - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Bar Charts - Bar Chart 15 (Q.No. 1)
Directions to Solve

Study the following bar chart and answer the questions carefully.

Sales Turnover of 5 Companies (in Rs. crores)


1.
What is the percentage change in the overall sales turnover of the five companies together between 2001 - 2002 and 2002 - 2003 ?
17.21 %
14.68 %
12.67 %
21.24 %
Answer: Option
Explanation:

The required answer is

100 - percentage value of the fraction (Absolute change/first year's value).

Discussion:
13 comments Page 1 of 2.

Chaithanya said:   1 decade ago
In this the explanation of q, 1 is not clear please explain briefly.

Aanya said:   1 decade ago
The explanation is not clear, can anyone explain.

Aanya said:   1 decade ago
Its ok i got it , the ans is 14.7%

Sriram said:   1 decade ago
Give the analysis of solution please.

Sai said:   1 decade ago
Can anyone explain it clearly.

Govind said:   1 decade ago
Add up all the 2001+2002 sales turnover carefully, and all the 2002+2003 values.

Than find the change percentage thereafter you will get the answer not accurately 14.68%.

ParthaUrfGo0fY said:   1 decade ago
Add all the sales of both 2001-2002 and 2002-2003 separately. And find out the difference. And divide the difference by 2001-2002 add up sales. Mind it, during summation of the sales, all the sale are not exactly of round fig. i.e. it may contain 810, 840, 960 like that.

Thank you. :).

Prasant said:   1 decade ago
2001-02: approx. 1100+900+650+1150+950 = 4750
2002-03: approx. 850+750+700+1050+700 = 4050
% change = (4750-4050)*100/4750 = 14.73% (approx)Hence, chose the near one option.
Absolute value = (approx)4750-4050 = 700 (chose the near one option)
(4)

Chirayu said:   1 decade ago
{(4750-4050)*100}/4750 = 14.68
(2)

Pradeep said:   1 decade ago
Like other bar charts, value should be given on the top of lines to calculate. Approximately, everyone has given the right calculation:

4750-4050 = 700.
(700/4750)*100 = 14.73% near to 14.68%.

Option (B).
(1)


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