Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
185 comments Page 8 of 19.
Vasanth said:
10 years ago
Another solution :
By ratio their wages 4 : 3 : 1, totally 8parts
(i.e) 4 + 3 + 1 = 8. athe value of one part = 3200/8 = 400.
C part is one so the answer is 400 rupees.
By ratio their wages 4 : 3 : 1, totally 8parts
(i.e) 4 + 3 + 1 = 8. athe value of one part = 3200/8 = 400.
C part is one so the answer is 400 rupees.
Vandana said:
1 year ago
Here the ratios of 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 do not equal the ratios 4:3:1 as shown in the explanation, there seems to be a mistake in the calculation, it comes to values 3 : 4 : 12.
(18)
BR Alam said:
2 years ago
A can do it in 6 days.
B can in 8 days.
Total work is 24 units (as 24 is the L.C.M of 6 & 8).
A + B + C = 8
(A + B + C) - (A + B),
= 8 - 7,
= 1.
1/8 * 3200 = 400rs.
B can in 8 days.
Total work is 24 units (as 24 is the L.C.M of 6 & 8).
A + B + C = 8
(A + B + C) - (A + B),
= 8 - 7,
= 1.
1/8 * 3200 = 400rs.
(27)
Vishal raika said:
1 decade ago
C's 1 day work = 1/3-{1/6+1/8} = 1/24.
A:B:C = 1/6*24:1/8*24:1/24*24.
= 4:3:1.
C share = Rs. [Day he worked*Part of work he did*Total share].
= Rs. {3*1/24*3200}.
A:B:C = 1/6*24:1/8*24:1/24*24.
= 4:3:1.
C share = Rs. [Day he worked*Part of work he did*Total share].
= Rs. {3*1/24*3200}.
Venky said:
1 decade ago
No need to calculate wages ratios.
C's part of work for 1 day is 1/24. So the contribution for 3 days is 3/24. As per contribution his share will be 3/24*3200=400.
C's part of work for 1 day is 1/24. So the contribution for 3 days is 3/24. As per contribution his share will be 3/24*3200=400.
Alby said:
1 decade ago
From the ratio itself we can calculate.
A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1.
Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200.
= 1/8 of 3200.
= 400.
A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1.
Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200.
= 1/8 of 3200.
= 400.
Dhanush said:
2 decades ago
A's wages : B's wages : C's wages =
=A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work
=1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24
=4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24)
=A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work
=1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24
=4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24)
(1)
Dave said:
1 decade ago
Actually, havent got the ratios we could have also found proportionate share of their wages as follows:
4+3+1 = 8.
Hence c's wage would've been 1/8*3200 = 400.
4+3+1 = 8.
Hence c's wage would've been 1/8*3200 = 400.
Ankur said:
1 decade ago
If 3200 is taken for the complete the entire job, why did we multiply C's share i.e. 1/24 by 3?
Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income.
Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income.
Vishal kanvajiya said:
3 years ago
A = 6
B = 8
A + B + C = 3
C = ?.
Lcm = 24
A = 4, B = 3,A + B + C = 8.
C = 8 - 7 = 1,
C = 1.
Money = 3200/8 = 400.
C = 1 * 400 = 400.
Answer is 400.
B = 8
A + B + C = 3
C = ?.
Lcm = 24
A = 4, B = 3,A + B + C = 8.
C = 8 - 7 = 1,
C = 1.
Money = 3200/8 = 400.
C = 1 * 400 = 400.
Answer is 400.
(146)
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