Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
179 comments Page 8 of 18.
Alby said:
1 decade ago
From the ratio itself we can calculate.
A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1.
Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200.
= 1/8 of 3200.
= 400.
A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1.
Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200.
= 1/8 of 3200.
= 400.
Dhanush said:
1 decade ago
A's wages : B's wages : C's wages =
=A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work
=1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24
=4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24)
=A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work
=1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24
=4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24)
Dave said:
1 decade ago
Actually, havent got the ratios we could have also found proportionate share of their wages as follows:
4+3+1 = 8.
Hence c's wage would've been 1/8*3200 = 400.
4+3+1 = 8.
Hence c's wage would've been 1/8*3200 = 400.
Ankur said:
9 years ago
If 3200 is taken for the complete the entire job, why did we multiply C's share i.e. 1/24 by 3?
Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income.
Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income.
Vishal kanvajiya said:
2 years ago
A = 6
B = 8
A + B + C = 3
C = ?.
Lcm = 24
A = 4, B = 3,A + B + C = 8.
C = 8 - 7 = 1,
C = 1.
Money = 3200/8 = 400.
C = 1 * 400 = 400.
Answer is 400.
B = 8
A + B + C = 3
C = ?.
Lcm = 24
A = 4, B = 3,A + B + C = 8.
C = 8 - 7 = 1,
C = 1.
Money = 3200/8 = 400.
C = 1 * 400 = 400.
Answer is 400.
(144)
Chandni said:
1 decade ago
Any one help me in above question we take difference of day like 3-1 equal to 2 than why we not take difference of day 8-6 equal to 2 please help me.
Prashant khair said:
4 years ago
C's share = total or given profit (money-3200) * (c's ratio(1/24)/sum of all ratios(3)
= 3200*3/24.
(NOTE : Sum of all ratios = 1/8 +1/6 + 1/24).
= 3200*3/24.
(NOTE : Sum of all ratios = 1/8 +1/6 + 1/24).
(9)
Maruthupandian said:
1 decade ago
@Arnab.
In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone?
won't it be (3-24/7) ?
because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C.
In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone?
won't it be (3-24/7) ?
because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C.
Kartik Choudhary said:
8 years ago
Please make me understand this.
We calculated ratio 4:3:1.
But how's the last step is done?
How we calculated C's share. Please elaborate it.
We calculated ratio 4:3:1.
But how's the last step is done?
How we calculated C's share. Please elaborate it.
Sai Mounika said:
1 decade ago
Why we are multiply all by 24? I think C's 1 day work is 1/24 so we have to multiply all by 24 in order to get the 3 days work. Am I right?
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