Discussion :: Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No.5)
C's share (for 3 days) = Rs.| Vishnu said: (Jul 30, 2010) | |
| How did you calculated the wages ratio? | |
| Dhanush said: (Aug 13, 2010) | |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = =A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work =1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 =4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24) |
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| Shaju said: (Sep 11, 2010) | |
| Can anyone help me with the last step? If we need to calculate (3 x 1/24 x 3200) then what was the use of finding the ratio. |
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| Chethu said: (Sep 30, 2010) | |
| Good Question Shaju, With the ratio you would get to know the share of A, B and C. A:B:C = 4:3:1 So the wages can be calculated easily (4*400:3*400:1*400) which is equal to (1600:1200:400) if we add it, it would give us the total amount if 3200. |
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| Shyam said: (Oct 3, 2010) | |
| It is simple, A's share is (4/8)*3200 B's share is (3/8)*3200 C's share is (1/8)*3200 |
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| Harish said: (Oct 25, 2010) | |
| 1/6:1/8:1/24==4:3:1 how its came give me the logic | |
| Ravi said: (Nov 4, 2010) | |
| The highest among the denominators is 24..so multiply the ratios by 24.. 24/6:24/8:24/24 4:3:1 |
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| Sandy said: (Nov 10, 2010) | |
| From where did 1/24 come? | |
| Sandy said: (Nov 17, 2010) | |
| @Sandy that is c's one day work.. ok.... @dhanush has clearly explained... | |
| Vinita said: (Dec 8, 2010) | |
| Sir pls explain me this step 1/3-7/24= 1/24 How is it? |
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| Guna said: (Dec 10, 2010) | |
| @Vinita Its simple L.C.M 24-21/24*3=3/72=1/24... |
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| Siddharth said: (Jan 21, 2011) | |
| IN 3*1/24*3200...FROM WHERE 3 IS COME | |
| Sahil Kapoor said: (Jan 21, 2011) | |
| I agree with siddharth, either the 3 should be removed or they should mention that A,B,C charge Rs 3200 "PER DAY" | |
| Aatif said: (Feb 2, 2011) | |
| 1/24 is the work done by C in one day. For three days "3" is used. | |
| Jagjeet said: (Feb 10, 2011) | |
| I agree in question they should mention 3200 per day. | |
| Shashank A said: (Apr 19, 2011) | |
| The last step of calculating 3*1/24*3200 is wrong as C would alone earn 3200 that way at the end of 24 days..:).The idea should be 1 part of 8 parts earned amongst A ,B and C is earned by C.Hence its 400.... | |
| Vandhanasuberwal said: (May 7, 2011) | |
| We can solve it as 1/8 multiply 3200. | |
| Jeevana said: (May 12, 2011) | |
| Can anyone help me with the first step? why do like that only |
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| Krishna said: (May 18, 2011) | |
| See jeevana , a,b,c can complete work in 3 days so a,b,c can complete a work in 1 days=1/3...........(1) a and b can complete work in 1 day=1/6+1/8=7/24works.....(2) c's one day works =a's and b's one day works is subtracted from a b c one days work that is(1-2) So 1/24 works done by c c 's 3 days work is 3/24=1/8 so c's share is = 3200/8=400 |
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| Anil said: (Jun 8, 2011) | |
| Wages is necessary for this question ? | |
| Kiran said: (Jun 17, 2011) | |
| In the end, why we have multiplied 3200 with C's 3 day work whereas it is the salary of both A and B ? | |
| Satheesh said: (Jun 24, 2011) | |
| What is the need to multiply 3 in last step = 3*1/24*3200 (since we already subtracted (1/3) ? | |
| Balaram said: (Jun 28, 2011) | |
| Hi Satheesh. From the step 1/c+1/6+1/8=1/3, you can get the work that can be done by the c in one day. So, the part of work that is contributed by c in 3 days, is 3*work done in one day. Hence, the step 3*1/24 is the total work done by c in 3 days. Now, the wage that has to come to c is just multiplication of his work to the total wage for the whole work. Hope, you would get the logic now. |
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| Ramya said: (Jul 6, 2011) | |
| Why we have to multiply with 24 to get the ratio as 4:3:1? | |
| Venky said: (Jul 19, 2011) | |
| No need to calculate wages ratios. C's part of work for 1 day is 1/24. So the contribution for 3 days is 3/24. As per contribution his share will be 3/24*3200=400. |
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| Arnab said: (Jul 22, 2011) | |
| A lot simpler method -- A does 1/6 in 1 day.. B does 1/8 in one day..So they both do (1/6+1/8=7/24)in 1 day.. Hence they will finish the work in 24/7 days.. they get paid 3200 for 24/7 units of work..hence they'll be paid 3200*7/24 for 1 units of work..which is equal to 2800/3.. now A and B were finishing it in 24/7 days but on C's help they do it in 3 days..hence they are saved 24/7-3 units of work which is equal to 3/7 units of works and C will be paid for this..now 1 unit's pay was 2800/3..hence 3/7 units pay is (2800*3)/(3*7) = 400!! |
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| Anandhakumar said: (Jul 29, 2011) | |
| Let us take total work as the L.C.M of 6,8,3 i.e 24. So A's per day work is 24/6=4, B's =24/8=3, a+b+c's=24/3=8. So C's Ability is= 8-(4+3)=1 ie(a+b+c-a-b). So the amount has to be divided into 4:3:1 So C's share is (1/8)*3200=400 |
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| Preeti2009_Delhi@Yahoo.Com said: (Aug 2, 2011) | |
| If both a and b work together on the single piece than in how many days they will complete their work and how? | |
| Pradeep Koney said: (Aug 5, 2011) | |
| No need to do all this hard work dudes...... A works 6days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/6=1600/3 B works 8days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/8=400 A&B&C worked for 3days That is A gets 3*1600/3 for 3days=1600 B gets 3*400 for 3days=1200 A+B wages=1600+1200=2800 C wages=3200-2800=400 |
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| Kavitha said: (Aug 9, 2011) | |
| One day work of A+B = (1/6)+(1/8) = 7/24 3 days work of A+B = (7/24)*3 = 7/8 Total amount=3200 3 days work of A+B with the amount 3200 = (7/8)*3200 = 2800 (A+B)'s share is 2800 C's share is = 3200-2800 = 400. |
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| Kartik M. said: (Aug 9, 2011) | |
| @pradeep koney Your method is nice. |
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| Aitya said: (Aug 18, 2011) | |
| A very simple method is :- The total complition money of the job is 3200. A completes the job in 6 day's.. So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33 B completes the job in 8 day's.. So his per day fees is 3200/8=400 a,b & c complets the job in 3days.. (3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200 (3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200 3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200) =3200-2800 C' full fee of the work is=400 |
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| Ramkumar said: (Sep 18, 2011) | |
| Pradeep Koney method is easily understood. | |
| Naman said: (Oct 6, 2011) | |
| This is very easy to understand ..... in last line.... there wages is 4:3:1 ....so wage of c is.. ===1*3200/(4+3+1)====3200/8===400 |
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| Parvatraj said: (Oct 12, 2011) | |
| According the quetion, A can do in 1 day 1/6 work. in 3 days 3/6 work. B can do in 1 day 1/8 work. in 3 days 3/8 work. So C has done (1-(3/6+3/8)) work. That is 1/8 work. So he has to get 1/3 of total amount. i.e, 3200/8=400 rs. But the calculation they have given is wrong. but answer is right unfortunately. |
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| Sekhar said: (Nov 6, 2011) | |
| Pradeep koni explains very very good. | |
| Sri said: (Nov 14, 2011) | |
| @Pradeep koney. Thanks Pradeep your method is easy. |
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| Ess said: (Dec 22, 2011) | |
| Why you are multiplying 3200 in c's 3 day work ? | |
| Prasad said: (Feb 5, 2012) | |
| C's share is=[1/(4+3+1)]*3200; Is it ok to solve by this method |
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| Tabish said: (Feb 18, 2012) | |
| Why multiplied by 24 to the A,B,C's one day work as it is the work completed by C in one day? | |
| Shro said: (Feb 20, 2012) | |
| Why to subtract C's work from (A and B) in 1st step? | |
| Adithya said: (Mar 26, 2012) | |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 4 : 3 : 1. so total wages(4+3+1) 3200/8 =400 for A = 400*4 = 1600....B = 3*400=1200. for C =400 |
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| Muhammad Akmal said: (May 28, 2012) | |
| Please explain that how (1/3 -7/24) = C's one day's work? What is the logic? |
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| Chandana said: (Jul 23, 2012) | |
| C's one days work is 1/3. A and B's one day work is 1/6 and 1/8 respectively. Now to know the amount of work done by C, we have to calculate the work done by A and B, i.e., 1/6 + 1/8= 7/24, now we have to calculate how much work C alone has alone done so, 1/3 - 7/24 take LMC you will get 8-7 / 24 you will get 1/24 And now 3*1/2*3200 = 400. |
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| Srisha said: (Jul 30, 2012) | |
| A very simple method is : The total completion money of the job is 3200. A completes the job in 6 day's. So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33 B completes the job in 8 day's. So his per day fees is 3200/8=400 a,b & c completes the job in 3days. (3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200 (3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200 3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)=3200-2800 C's full fee of the work is = 400 |
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| Rahul Chourasia said: (Aug 19, 2012) | |
| Wages ratio is not important short method is c work in 3 days a & b money =3200 c work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3-(1/6+1/8)) last calculation is 3*1/24*3200 ans is 400 |
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| Ayan Sett said: (Sep 3, 2012) | |
| @pradeep koney thanks.. |
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| Bitu said: (Feb 12, 2013) | |
| According to the question 3200.00 was given to be the amount taken by both A & B collectively for completing the work together. Then how could it be treated as the total amount obtained by the three to be distributed among. | |
| Ranjeet Singh said: (Mar 12, 2013) | |
| Because lastly A, B, C are working together for completing the work and we all know that no one work for free of cost so we will have to involve C in 3200 distribution. Initially only A and B working that's why 3200 distributed between A and B. | |
| Maruthupandian said: (Mar 28, 2013) | |
| @Arnab. In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone? won't it be (3-24/7) ? because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C. |
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| Somesh said: (Apr 12, 2013) | |
| If one person A takes "x" days to complete a work alone and another person B takes "y" days to complete the same work alone, then the number days both A and B take working together is : x y/ (x + y). I hope you will surely understand what you have to do. |
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| Sangeethavimalraj said: (Apr 23, 2013) | |
| Total amount is 3200, Ratio 4:3:1, 4*x+3*x+1*x = 3200. 8x = 3200. x = 400. |
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| Vinod Anand said: (May 22, 2013) | |
| If A=1/6 ,B=1/8 and A+B+C = 1/3 ----(1). A+B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24. Put the value of A+B in Eq.(1). Than C = 1/8 - 7/24 = 1/24. The Value of C' is 1/24. Now the Ratio of A:B:C =1/6:1/8:1/24 (The L.C.M Of 1/6+1/8+1/24 is 24) A:B:C =4:3:1. Than Amt.is Rs.3200. So the C' will be paid = 3200 X 1/8. = Rs. 400.00 Answer. |
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| Hema said: (Jul 2, 2013) | |
| Yes, I agree that amount 3200 in the question is not clearly mentioned. Is that for per day? | |
| B.Indirasouajyaan said: (Jul 8, 2013) | |
| The ratio obtained is 4:3:1. Then why did you multiply 3*1/24*3200? we should not multiply with 1? | |
| Dave said: (Jul 11, 2013) | |
| Actually, havent got the ratios we could have also found proportionate share of their wages as follows: 4+3+1 = 8. Hence c's wage would've been 1/8*3200 = 400. |
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| Seema Duhan said: (Jul 14, 2013) | |
| take LCM of A and B work, then get: A+B=7/24. WHERE: A+B+C = 1/3 (given). So 7/24+C=1/3. C=1/24. With the ratio you would get to know the share of A, B and C. Now the Ratio of A:B:C =1/6:1/8:1/24 (The L.C.M Of 1/6+1/8+1/24 is 24) A:B:C =4:3:1. So the wages can be calculated easily (4*400:3*400:1*400) which is equal to (1600:1200:400) if we add it, it would give us the total amount if 3200. It is simple, A's share is (4/8)*3200. B's share is (3/8)*3200. C's share is (1/8)*3200 (because 4+3+1=8). |
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| Soumya said: (Aug 24, 2013) | |
| Can we solve the problem without calculating ratio? | |
| Vikas said: (Aug 28, 2013) | |
| No need to calculate the ratios its just wast of time. | |
| Prince Dubey said: (Aug 30, 2013) | |
| A, B, C can complete work in 3 days. so A, B, C can complete a work in 1 days = 1/3...........(1). A and B can complete work in 1 day = 1/6+1/8 = 7/24 works.....(2). C's one day works = A's and B's one day works is subtracted from A B C one days work that is(1-2). So 1/24 works done by C. C 's 3 days work is 3/24 = 1/8. So C's share is = 3200/8 = 400. |
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| Prince Dubey said: (Aug 30, 2013) | |
| Wages ratio is not important short method is. C work in 3 days. A & B money = 3200. C work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3- (1/6+1/8) ). Last calculation is 3*1/24*3200. Answer is 400. |
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| Karun said: (Sep 10, 2013) | |
| A efficiency 16.66. B efficiency 12.50. So total work of A+B is 29.16 remaining 70.84. So 70.84/3 = 24(C efficency ) |
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| Satyakrishna said: (Sep 16, 2013) | |
| Is there any shortcut method to find this, by directly substituting the values? | |
| Vinod Rathod said: (Sep 23, 2013) | |
| Leave every method go for simple method. A alone can do the work in 6 days. B alone can do the work 8 days. They took the work at Rs 3200 with the help of C. Lets take a per day work of A at Rs x. Total = 3200/6 days. = 533.33*3 days. A = 1599.99 = 1600. B = 3200/8 days. = 400 * 3 days. B = 1200. A+B = 1600+1200 = 2800 And left 3200 -2800 = 400. C = 400 Answer. |
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| Rohan said: (Oct 9, 2013) | |
| 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 and ratio 4:3:1. Answer above says highest number is 24 so multiply all by 24... is that the logic? |
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| Alby said: (Oct 24, 2013) | |
| From the ratio itself we can calculate. A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1. Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200. = 1/8 of 3200. = 400. |
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| Sai Mounika said: (Dec 30, 2013) | |
| Why we are multiply all by 24? I think C's 1 day work is 1/24 so we have to multiply all by 24 in order to get the 3 days work. Am I right? | |
| Vivek Jasele said: (May 9, 2014) | |
| 4:3:1. C share will be simply as already we have count for 3 days work. 1/4+3+1*32000 = 1/8*3200 = 400. Answer. |
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| Vinnu said: (Jun 9, 2014) | |
| See from the problem we can calculate c's 1 day work = 1/24. It means he can complete work in 24 days. So for calculating wage of c we can say for 24 days he is to be paid 3200. But for 3 days he is to be paid? Cross multiply we get (3*3200) /24=400. Its easy. |
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| Hemanth said: (Jul 1, 2014) | |
| The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs.3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs.3200 individually. Correct me if im wrong. | |
| Kumar said: (Aug 21, 2014) | |
| The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs.3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs.3200 individually. Correct me if I'm wrong. | |
| Nisha said: (Sep 7, 2014) | |
| Ya The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs. 3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs. 3200 individually. Correct me if I'm wrong. | |
| Divakar said: (Sep 22, 2014) | |
| Last step can be written as C's share = 1/8*3200 = 400. | |
| Dumbass said: (Oct 20, 2014) | |
| Please help. Where did the number 8 come from in 1/8*3200 = 400? |
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| Pavithra said: (Nov 5, 2014) | |
| Can anyone say how the 1/6+1/8 comes as 7/24? I need the clear explanation of the solution. |
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| Sapna said: (Nov 18, 2014) | |
| 1/6+1/8 = 8+6/48. = 14/48. = 7/24. |
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| Uday said: (Nov 18, 2014) | |
| Suppose if we want A share, then. A/(A+B+C)*3200 = 4/(4+3+1)*3200. = 4/8*3200. A's share = 1600. B's share = B/(A+B+C) = 3/(4+3+1)*3200. = 3/8*3200. B's share = 1200. Similarly C's share = 400. Therefore Sum of shares of A+B+C = 3200. |
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| Kanmani Roja said: (Dec 28, 2014) | |
| Another method to solve this problem can be: A's 1 day work = 1/6. B's 1 day work = 1/8. Both combined (1 day work) = 1/6+1/8 = 7/24 work. Hence both together completed in = 24/7 days. Therefore in 24/7 days = 3200 wages. C's working days = 3-24/7 = 3/7. Hence for 24/7 days = 3200 wages. C's 3/7 days = x wages. To find x: 24/7(x) = 3/7*3200. x = 400. C should be paid by Rs.400. |
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| Anjana S Babu said: (Feb 15, 2015) | |
| A's 1 day work = 1/6. B's 1 day work = 1/8. C's 1 day work = 1/3. We can calculate both A+B = 1/6+1/8. = 8+6/48 = 14/48. = 7/24. Then C's 1 day work = 1/3-7/24. = 24-21/72 = 3/72. = 1/24. |
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| Ram said: (Feb 23, 2015) | |
| I think this is a wrong question. In it the information is not given that for how many days A and B are given 3200? | |
| Yuvraj said: (Mar 15, 2015) | |
| How to find A And B share? | |
| Danish said: (Mar 26, 2015) | |
| How do you guys know that C's work ratio is 24? Please help. | |
| Mouni said: (Mar 28, 2015) | |
| Hi @Danish. In sum we have total work of a, b, c so we subtract both a and b work from total work then we will get c work that is 1/24 ok. And then to find ratio of wages we multiply with 24 why because the LCM of a, b, c is 24. So we multiply with 24 and get ratios of all. |
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| Archita said: (Apr 15, 2015) | |
| A 1 day work = 1/6. B 1 day work = 1/8. (A + B + C) complete work in = 3 days. A + B + C one day work = 1/3. 1/6 + 1/8 + (C one day work) = 1/3. C one day work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/24. Total money = 3200. So A, B, C share in the whole money is depend on their work ratio. A work : B work : C work = 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24. Or 4 : 3 : 1 (multiply 24 in each). A share = (4/8) *3200 = 1600. B share = (3/8) * 3200 = 1200. C share = (1/8) *3200 = 400. |
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| Sateesh Vudum said: (Jun 12, 2015) | |
| Find the Ratio among the A, B, C. Add the ratios = 4:3:1 = 8. 8-32000. 1-? = 3200/8 = 400's wages. |
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| Chandni said: (Jun 25, 2015) | |
| Any one help me in above question we take difference of day like 3-1 equal to 2 than why we not take difference of day 8-6 equal to 2 please help me. | |
| Soumyajit Roy said: (Jun 29, 2015) | |
| A's work of 1 day = 1/6 B's work of 1 day = 1/8. A's work of 3 days = 1/6*3 = 1/2 B's work of 3 days = 1/8*3 = 3/8. (A+B) 's work of 3 days (1/2 + 3/8) = 7/8. So the left work in 3 days is done by C. That is, (1 - 7/8) = 1/8. Now A, B, C share in the whole money is depend on their work ratio. So C's Share is 1/8*3200 = 400. |
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| Raj Pathak said: (Aug 5, 2015) | |
| Hope this will change. A, B and C total 3200 not like A and B as mentioned above. | |
| Prithivi said: (Aug 7, 2015) | |
| Can any one say how was the ratio can be calculated those three a, b, c? | |
| Rajesh said: (Aug 31, 2015) | |
| No of work days done by a, b, c. | |
| Thomas said: (Sep 6, 2015) | |
| C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. 3x1x3200 = Rs. 400. Seems this step has confused everyone. Ideally we should go like this: C share is 1 from (4:3:1). So the share from total amount is C'share 1/4+3+1 = 1/8. C's Share of Money 1/8*3200 = 400. |
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| Yash said: (Sep 26, 2015) | |
| I didn't understand the step. How they multiplied wage of C with 3? |
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| Sai Vinay said: (Sep 27, 2015) | |
| A's work = 1/6. B's work = 1/8. A+B+C = 1/3 per day. C = (A+B+C) - (A+B). = (1/3) - ((1/6)+(1/8)). = 1/24. So A:B:C = 1/6:1/8:1/24. LCM = 24. Ratio = 4:3:1. T.P = (4+3+1) = 8. 8 parts--------------------->3200. Then C's 1 part---------------------->? -->8*x = 3200*1. x = 3200/8. C money = 400. |
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| Suba said: (Dec 17, 2015) | |
| There's no need of multiplying the number with 3. We can do it in other way as well. As @Sai vinay said, we can consider that part. |
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| Pradeep Sharma said: (Dec 21, 2015) | |
| Thanks a lot Sapna. You have cleared my confusion about 7/24. | |
| Vishal Raika said: (Jan 9, 2016) | |
| C's 1 day work = 1/3-{1/6+1/8} = 1/24. A:B:C = 1/6*24:1/8*24:1/24*24. = 4:3:1. C share = Rs. [Day he worked*Part of work he did*Total share]. = Rs. {3*1/24*3200}. |
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| Ravi Kumar said: (Jan 21, 2016) | |
| From given: A+B+C can complete a work in 3 days and they will get amount 3200 for 3 days. So A, B, C work for 3 days. A one day work is 1/6. B one day work is 1/8. C one day work is, we have to find out. A+B+C one day work is 1/3 because A, B, C complete a work in 3 days. So A+B+C one day work = 1/6+1/8+1/C. 1/3 = 1/6+1/8+1/C. 1/C = 1/24 so "C" one day work is 1/24. A's 3 days work is 3/6 and he will get the amount is 3/6*3200 = 1600. B's 3 day work is 3/8 and he will get 3/8*3200 = 1200. C's 3 day work is 3/24 and he will get 3/24*3200 = 400. |
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| John said: (Feb 1, 2016) | |
| The last portion can also be explained as: Since the ratio of the wages of A:B:C came as 4:3:1 respectively, it's obvious that the proportion of C is 1/8 i.e. 1/4+3+1 = 1/8. Since the total amount is Rs. 3200, the portion or the amount received by C is 1/8 X 3200 = 400. Similarly portions of other members are: A's 4/8 X 3200 = 1600. B's 3/8 X 3200 = 1200. |
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| Ankur said: (Feb 12, 2016) | |
| If 3200 is taken for the complete the entire job, why did we multiply C's share i.e. 1/24 by 3? Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income. |
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| Renju K S said: (Feb 15, 2016) | |
| For what purpose we need to find ratio of wages for this question? | |
| Aakash said: (Feb 21, 2016) | |
| Why we required for ratio of wages in this question? | |
| Bhabani said: (Mar 18, 2016) | |
| You can directly write there 4x+3x+x=3200, then you also got x=400. | |
| Samrat said: (Apr 15, 2016) | |
| 3*1/24*3200. How it come, normally we add all the ratio and the ratio is 4:3:1. How I find the share of A and B? |
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| Sunil said: (Jun 17, 2016) | |
| Please explain from where 1/24 came? | |
| Ankit said: (Jul 2, 2016) | |
| A finish work in day = 6, B finish work in day = 8, LCM = 24. A doing work in one day = 24/6 = 4, B doing work in one day = 24/8 = 3, If both are work together, so one day work = 4 + 3 = 7. So, one day work = 7/24, In three day = 3(7/24), A and B combined rupee = 21/24*3200 = 2800. So, C = 3200 - 2800 = 400. Please suggest me, this is true or wrong. |
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| Rajnish Jha said: (Jul 20, 2016) | |
| Given, A finish work in 6 days. B finish work in 8 days. Then C's 1 day work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/24. Then ratio of a : b : c = 4 : 3 : 1. Then, C share for 3 days = 3 * 1/24 * 3200 = 400-> answer. |
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| Naveen said: (Jul 31, 2016) | |
| @Pradeep, your method is really superb and very easy to understand. Thank you so much. | |
| Vasanth said: (Aug 16, 2016) | |
| Another solution : By ratio their wages 4 : 3 : 1, totally 8parts (i.e) 4 + 3 + 1 = 8. athe value of one part = 3200/8 = 400. C part is one so the answer is 400 rupees. |
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| Nithya said: (Sep 1, 2016) | |
| Your method is good % easy, Thanks @Pradeep Koney. | |
| Bharath said: (Oct 8, 2016) | |
| NO need of looking for ratios. Just understand the question and do logically. A = 6days B = 8days C = ? A + B + C = 3200rupees. Now we need to find how many days would C take to complete his work. 1/6 + 1/8+ C = 1/3. C = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8). 1/3 - (7/24). 1/24. So, here we found that C can do 1/24 work in one day, now in 3 days C can do: 3 * 1/24 = 1/8. Now 1/8 * 3200 gives us the answer. So, 1/8 * 3200 = 400. |
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| Ashish said: (Dec 14, 2016) | |
| We can also use the lcm method. | |
| K Appala Naidu said: (Dec 26, 2016) | |
| A's one day work = 1/6 B's one day work= 1/8 C's one day work = 1/x A + B + C one day work = 1/3. 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/x = 1/3. C's one day work is 1/24. The ratio of A : B : C is 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4 : 3 : 1. For 8 parts 3200 for C's 1 part 3200/8 = 400. So, the answer is 400. |
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| Ahamika said: (Jan 5, 2017) | |
| I still can't understand the solution. Is there any shortcut to find the solution? | |
| Malli said: (Jan 12, 2017) | |
| How 1/6, 1/8, 1/24 converted into 4 : 3 : 1? | |
| Bhuvana said: (Feb 9, 2017) | |
| The LCM of 6,8 and 24.Then, 24/6 = 4 24/8 = 3 24/24 = 1. So, that the ratio becomes 4:3:1. |
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| Shyam said: (Feb 10, 2017) | |
| A bullocks & B tractors can shield a field in 8 days. If we halve the bullocks and double the tractors then it takes 5 days. In how many days A bullocks can shield the field? Please answer this question. |
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| Himid said: (Mar 31, 2017) | |
| We see that C can finish it in 3 days. So, C works harder. If we divide Rs 3200 by 3 its Rs 1066.67. As C works harder C should get more than Rs. 1066.67. So, why he is getting Rs. 400? | |
| Shri said: (Apr 1, 2017) | |
| It forms equation. Just simplify you'll get answer @Shyam. | |
| Sai Sri said: (May 9, 2017) | |
| A's SHARE =3/6*3200 = 1600. B's SHARE =3/8*3200 = 1200. TOTAL A & B =1600+1200 = 2800. C's SHARE =3200-2800 = 400. |
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| Abhishek Giri said: (May 19, 2017) | |
| @ALL. 3 days work. A completes in 6 days so he should get half of Rs.3200 i.e., 1600. B's completes in 8 days means half work in 4 days. that means he has worked 1 day less than A 3200/2 = 1600. 1600/4 (B half days work) = Rs. 400 for 1-day work. so 1600-400 = Rs .1200 (B will get). Remaining C. 1600+1200 = 2800. 3200-2800 = 400(C will get). |
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| Kartik Choudhary said: (Jun 7, 2017) | |
| Please make me understand this. We calculated ratio 4:3:1. But how's the last step is done? How we calculated C's share. Please elaborate it. |
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| Ajinkya said: (Jun 16, 2017) | |
| A's 1 days work=1/6.A worked for 3 days. So A's income will be 3200*3/6=1600 RS. B work for 3 days = 3/8, B's income =3/8*3200 = 1200, So C's income= 3200-(A+B income), = 3200-2800, = 400. |
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| Priyanka said: (Jul 1, 2017) | |
| Is 3200 is wage per person per day? | |
| Vishwa said: (Jul 16, 2017) | |
| No! @Priyanka. It's the total amount given for total work done by all 3. Total work is 8parts, out of which c can complete only 1 part hence C can get 1/8 Part of the total amount. i.e (1/8) *3200=400. |
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| The Pope said: (Jul 20, 2017) | |
| Thanks for the given Explaination. | |
| Vasu said: (Jul 20, 2017) | |
| Thanks for all the given explanations. | |
| Rahul Manjhi said: (Aug 6, 2017) | |
| If A do work in 6days then in 3days the amount he will get=3/6*3200=1600. If B do work in 8days then in 3days the amount he will get=3/8*3200=800. Therefore,1600+800(A+B)took together=2800. Now, total amount=3200. So the amount C will get=3200-2800=400(answer). |
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| Nagesh said: (Aug 17, 2017) | |
| Please, Anyone can you help me? Why we are multiplying with 24 to get the ratios of a:b:c? |
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| Sweta said: (Aug 20, 2017) | |
| Can any one help me how the first step is possible? | |
| Tushar said: (Aug 22, 2017) | |
| C's 1day work=total work-(A'a 1day work+B's1day work). C's work is=1/3-(1/6+1/8). It's simple. |
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| Sriya said: (Aug 28, 2017) | |
| It's more like the ratio n proportion. The ratio of A:B:C's 1-day work is 1/6:1/8:1/24 24 is multiplied for simplified calculation. If you multiply 24 in the numerator of each, it'd give 4:3:1. (Because 24/6=4, 24/8=3, 24/24=1). Sum of the proportion 4:3:1 = 4+3+1 = 8. Now, A gets = 4/8 of 3200 = 1600, B gets = 3/8 of 3200 = 1200, C gets = 1/8 of 3200 = 400. |
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| Bhanu said: (Sep 21, 2017) | |
| 400 is the correct answer. | |
| Divyabatra said: (Oct 20, 2017) | |
| We are multiplying 3200 with 3 because of this reason: See, A and B worked together and got 3200 for their work. But with the help of C, they could finish their work in 3 days. So, as we can see" with the help of C", so, C 's share is also given by both A and B as A and B has taken help from C. So, C's share is calculated like this:-. C's 1 day's work=1/24. But if we do this:- 3200*1/24; this will be wrong as C will get wages for his 1 day work only. But given in question that C has worked for 3 days, so 3200*1/24*3= i.e. 3 will also be multiplied, so to give C's share to him completely. So, answer is 3200*1/24*3=400. |
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| Ved Prakash Singh said: (Nov 29, 2017) | |
| C's one day work=1/24. so C's 3 days work is=1/8. C will take 1/8 part of 3200 which is equal to 1/8*3200=400. |
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| Rk Singh said: (Jan 1, 2018) | |
| A -6 Days (24/6=4). B -8 Days (24/8=3). A+B+C -3 Days (24/3=8) Take L.C.M of 3,6,8 is 24 and 24 is divide each work Day of A,B, A+B+c, to find 1 Days work. A+B+C=8, (8 unit=3200, then 1 unit =3200/8=400). we know A+B=7. Then C=1 We know =400 Rs. only. |
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| Bev said: (Feb 24, 2018) | |
| Easier way to work it out. (3/8+3/6) -1 x 3200 = 400. |
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| Rajat Kumar Pal said: (Feb 26, 2018) | |
| Assume W=24 unit because multiple of 6 and 8 days. A- 6days - 24/6=4u/d B- 8 Days - 24/8=3u/d C-? A&B&C=24/3=8u/d. So, C= 1u/d because A&B&C take 8u/d so subtract the total minus - individual A and B. Pa: Pb: Pc = Wa: Wb: Wc =Ra: Rb: Rc. so Rc=3*1/24*3200=400. |
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| Emi Bhuyan said: (Jun 9, 2018) | |
| Why here 1/3 is subtracted? Please explain. | |
| Sushmaswaraj said: (Jul 9, 2018) | |
| Why should we multiply the wages with 24 to get the ratio? | |
| Lithi said: (Jul 22, 2018) | |
| LCM 24. A4 B3 ABC 8 So, c=1. 3200*1/8=400. |
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| Taran said: (Aug 17, 2018) | |
| @All. It is simple by solving this way. Work = efficiency*time ----> 1 Efficiency = work/time. ----> 2 Time = work/efficiency ----> 3 Acc to question; A can do work in 6 days. B can do work in 8 days. (A+B+C) Can do work in 3 days. Taking LCM of 6,8,3 is 24. Hence Let Work =24 units. Now efficiency of A=24/6= 4units/day ----> using(2) Efficiency of B=24/8= 3 units/day ----> using(2) Efficiencyof (A+B+C) = 24/3=8unit/day ----> using(2) Hence efficiency of C=Efficiency of (A+B+C)-Efficiency of A -Efficiency of B= 8-4-3=1unit/day. Now we know A:B:C::4:3:1. Let x be the price for 1 unit of work. SO 4x+3x+x=3200. 8x=3200. X=3200/8 =400. As we know C can do 1unit/day. Hence wages for C =1x(and x=400). Hence it's 400. |
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| Lalit said: (Sep 5, 2018) | |
| Why we need to multiply 3200*1/8? | |
| Sunil said: (Sep 29, 2018) | |
| Option A is the right answer if you perfectly have understood the question. Here in the question, it is given that A & B undertook to do the work for 3200 then how C can earn his wages from the first day. Here Supposed A & B if do the work in 3 days then they will able to do - 21 work But they did it in 3 days with the help of C. So the method is here that; For the first two days, A+B do - 14 work. Then with the help of C they able to finish it in 3 days so A+B+C do last day - 10 work. That means one-day work of C is - 3. Then the work ratio of A+B for two days with A+B+C in one day is - 14:10 = 7:5. Then (3200 ÷12) * 5 = 1250. Then bye one-day work ratio of A B&C = 4:3:3. Then (3200÷10) * 3 = 375, Hence the answer is 375. |
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| Jishnu said: (Oct 11, 2018) | |
| @all. A takes 6 days to complete the job. So a one day work is 1/6 and for 3 days it is 3/6 ie 1/2. Similarly for B for 3 days work is 3/8 now A's share is 1/2 of 3200= 1600 B's share 3/8 of 3200=1200. So C's share 3200--- (1600+1200) = 40. |
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| Vidyasri said: (Oct 26, 2018) | |
| Thank you @Sai vinay. | |
| Sruthi said: (Dec 6, 2018) | |
| The total work-> 24 {LCM of days}. A's 1day work->4, B's 1day work->3, with the help of C they completed the work in 3 days, A+B+C=8 {24/3 ie, total work/no.of days to complete}. 4+3+C=8. C=1. Then, 3200/8=400. C does 1unit so C gets 400. If it does 2units 400 * 2. |
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| Praveen Kumar said: (Jan 5, 2019) | |
| The sum of three numbers is 275. If the ratio between the fast and second be 3:7 and that between the second and third be 4:5 then find the second number. Can anyone solve this? | |
| Ishan Raj said: (Jan 10, 2019) | |
| How 4:3:1 came? Anyone explain me. | |
| Zeenat said: (Feb 21, 2019) | |
| 1/6 * 24 : 1/8 * 24 :1/24 * 24 convert fraction to the whole number. | |
| Yaamu said: (Mar 4, 2019) | |
| Why we are taking ratio 3 * 3200 * 1/24 where does this 3 come from can anyone explain me? | |
| Hariprasad K N said: (Mar 26, 2019) | |
| It is very simple; A's 1day work = 1/6. B's 1day work = 1/8. A&B&C's 1day work=1/3. C's 1day work=A+B+C'S 1day work-(A+B's 1day work)=(1/3)-(1/6)-(1/8) = 1/24. A will do a complete work that is 1 full work in 6 day's means how much work he will do in 3 days given by; 6days--------->1 complete work 3days--------->? Cross multiply then we get 1/2 work that is half of the work total work done by A. Similarly, B ' s work done in 3 days is given by; 8 days-------->1 complete work, 3------------------? Cross multiply we get 3/8 part of 1 complete work done by B. Similarly, C's part of work is given by; 24 days --------->1 complete work 3 days ------------>? By cross multiply, we get 1/8. So, For 1 complete work they get ------------>3200. Then for A's (1/2) part of that work------>? Cross multiply we get 1600. Similarly for B 1 complete work------->3200 B's (3/8) part of the work--->? By cross multiply, we get 1200. Similarly for C. 1 Complete work ------>3200 C's part of (1/8) part of the work--->? We get by cross multiply 400. |
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| Princi said: (May 29, 2019) | |
| What is the need of ratio? | |
| Sai said: (Jun 23, 2019) | |
| A = 6days. B = 8days. A+B+C=3days. C's no of days required to complete the work. (1÷6)+(1÷8)+(1÷C)=(1÷3). Therefore C=24 day's. Now the ratio of no of days taken by each member to complete the work comes(6:8:24). But, we know that A is somewhat a fast worker than B and C therefore he must be paid more and C is taking more time he must be paid less, Now let's considers these people's each day of work ie A=(1÷6), B=(1÷8), C=(1÷24). Therefore the total units of work=(1÷6)+(1÷8)+(1÷24)=( 1÷3) by taking lcm Now , The total amount to is 3200. 3200/(1÷3)=9600. Therefore 9600/24 is 400. |
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| Shivani Kumari said: (Nov 12, 2019) | |
| A's 3day ways = (1/6)*3*3200 = 1600. B's 3day ways = (1/8)*3*3200 = 1200. C's 3day ways = 3200-(1600+1200). |
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| Saran said: (Jan 3, 2020) | |
| Thanks @Shivani Kumari. | |
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