Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

@All.

It is simple by solving this way.

Work = efficiency*time ----> 1
Efficiency = work/time. ----> 2
Time = work/efficiency ----> 3

Acc to question;

A can do work in 6 days.
B can do work in 8 days.
(A+B+C) Can do work in 3 days.

Taking LCM of 6,8,3 is 24.
Hence Let Work =24 units.

Now efficiency of A=24/6= 4units/day ----> using(2)
Efficiency of B=24/8= 3 units/day ----> using(2)
Efficiencyof (A+B+C) = 24/3=8unit/day ----> using(2)

Hence efficiency of C=Efficiency of (A+B+C)-Efficiency of A -Efficiency of B= 8-4-3=1unit/day.

Now we know A:B:C::4:3:1.
Let x be the price for 1 unit of work.

SO 4x+3x+x=3200.
8x=3200.
X=3200/8 =400.

As we know C can do 1unit/day.
Hence wages for C =1x(and x=400).
Hence it's 400.

Why we are taking ratio 3 * 3200 * 1/24 where does this 3 come from can anyone explain me?

A's wages : B's wages : C's wages =
=A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work
=1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24
=4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24)

Can anyone help me with the last step?

If we need to calculate (3 x 1/24 x 3200) then what was the use of finding the ratio.

Good Question Shaju,

With the ratio you would get to know the share of A, B and C.

A:B:C = 4:3:1

So the wages can be calculated easily (4*400:3*400:1*400) which is equal to (1600:1200:400) if we add it, it would give us the total amount if 3200.

It is simple, A's share is (4/8)*3200

B's share is (3/8)*3200

C's share is (1/8)*3200

1/6:1/8:1/24==4:3:1 how its came give me the logic

The highest among the denominators is 24..so multiply the ratios by 24..
24/6:24/8:24/24
4:3:1

Sir pls explain me this step 1/3-7/24= 1/24
How is it?

No need to do all this hard work dudes......

A works 6days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/6=1600/3

B works 8days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/8=400

A&B&C worked for 3days

That is A gets 3*1600/3 for 3days=1600

B gets 3*400 for 3days=1200

A+B wages=1600+1200=2800

C wages=3200-2800=400