Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Rs. 375
Rs. 400
Rs. 600
Rs. 800
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C's 1 day's work = 1 - 1 + 1 = 1 - 7 = 1 .
3 6 8 3 24 24

A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 1 : 1 : 1 = 4 : 3 : 1.
6 8 24

C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. 3 x 1 x 3200 = Rs. 400.
24

Discussion:
186 comments Page 3 of 19.

Keerthana S said:   8 months ago
See,

I hope everyone gets dout on how 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4 : 3 : 1.
So first consider this 1/6:1/8:1/24
LCM will be 24 so, then
1/6 × 24 = 4.
1/8 × 24 = 3.
1/24 × 24 = 1.
So, it's 4 : 3 : 1.
(11)

Bijay Ghosh said:   5 years ago
We can even do it like;

C's share for 3 days = (1/(4+3+1) * 3200),
= 1/8 * 3200,
= 400.
(10)

Prashant khair said:   5 years ago
C's share = total or given profit (money-3200) * (c's ratio(1/24)/sum of all ratios(3)
= 3200*3/24.

(NOTE : Sum of all ratios = 1/8 +1/6 + 1/24).
(9)

Ahin said:   6 months ago
The easiest solution to this question is to find the efficiency of a + b + c - (a + b). You would be getting 1 as c's efficiency.

So, the total work done by a + b + c is 8.
i.e. 1 is divided by 8 * 3200. And You'll get 400.
(7)

Shivani kumari said:   7 years ago
A's 3day ways = (1/6)*3*3200 = 1600.
B's 3day ways = (1/8)*3*3200 = 1200.
C's 3day ways = 3200-(1600+1200).
(6)

Mrinmoy Saha said:   5 years ago
3(1/6+1/8+1/x) = 1
=> 1/x = 1/24,
1/6:1/8:1/24= 4:3:1,

3200 * 1/8 = 400.
(6)

Hitesh said:   5 years ago
@Pradeep Koney.

It's very simply elaborated and easy to understand. Thanks.
(5)

Deep said:   8 months ago
Thanks everyone for explaining the answer.
(3)

A K Burnwal said:   2 months ago
A + B + C = 1/3.
A + B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24,
C = 1/3 - 7/24 = 1/24,
C's share = 3 * 3200 * 1/24 = 400.
(3)

Vishnu said:   2 decades ago
How did you calculated the wages ratio?
(2)


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