Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
179 comments Page 3 of 18.
Mrinmoy Saha said:
4 years ago
3(1/6+1/8+1/x) = 1
=> 1/x = 1/24,
1/6:1/8:1/24= 4:3:1,
3200 * 1/8 = 400.
=> 1/x = 1/24,
1/6:1/8:1/24= 4:3:1,
3200 * 1/8 = 400.
(6)
Hitesh said:
4 years ago
@Pradeep Koney.
It's very simply elaborated and easy to understand. Thanks.
It's very simply elaborated and easy to understand. Thanks.
(5)
Vishnu said:
2 decades ago
How did you calculated the wages ratio?
(2)
Yaamu said:
6 years ago
Why we are taking ratio 3 * 3200 * 1/24 where does this 3 come from can anyone explain me?
(2)
Vinita said:
1 decade ago
Sir pls explain me this step 1/3-7/24= 1/24
How is it?
How is it?
(1)
Pradeep Koney said:
1 decade ago
No need to do all this hard work dudes......
A works 6days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/6=1600/3
B works 8days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/8=400
A&B&C worked for 3days
That is A gets 3*1600/3 for 3days=1600
B gets 3*400 for 3days=1200
A+B wages=1600+1200=2800
C wages=3200-2800=400
A works 6days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/6=1600/3
B works 8days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/8=400
A&B&C worked for 3days
That is A gets 3*1600/3 for 3days=1600
B gets 3*400 for 3days=1200
A+B wages=1600+1200=2800
C wages=3200-2800=400
(1)
Taran said:
7 years ago
@All.
It is simple by solving this way.
Work = efficiency*time ----> 1
Efficiency = work/time. ----> 2
Time = work/efficiency ----> 3
Acc to question;
A can do work in 6 days.
B can do work in 8 days.
(A+B+C) Can do work in 3 days.
Taking LCM of 6,8,3 is 24.
Hence Let Work =24 units.
Now efficiency of A=24/6= 4units/day ----> using(2)
Efficiency of B=24/8= 3 units/day ----> using(2)
Efficiencyof (A+B+C) = 24/3=8unit/day ----> using(2)
Hence efficiency of C=Efficiency of (A+B+C)-Efficiency of A -Efficiency of B= 8-4-3=1unit/day.
Now we know A:B:C::4:3:1.
Let x be the price for 1 unit of work.
SO 4x+3x+x=3200.
8x=3200.
X=3200/8 =400.
As we know C can do 1unit/day.
Hence wages for C =1x(and x=400).
Hence it's 400.
It is simple by solving this way.
Work = efficiency*time ----> 1
Efficiency = work/time. ----> 2
Time = work/efficiency ----> 3
Acc to question;
A can do work in 6 days.
B can do work in 8 days.
(A+B+C) Can do work in 3 days.
Taking LCM of 6,8,3 is 24.
Hence Let Work =24 units.
Now efficiency of A=24/6= 4units/day ----> using(2)
Efficiency of B=24/8= 3 units/day ----> using(2)
Efficiencyof (A+B+C) = 24/3=8unit/day ----> using(2)
Hence efficiency of C=Efficiency of (A+B+C)-Efficiency of A -Efficiency of B= 8-4-3=1unit/day.
Now we know A:B:C::4:3:1.
Let x be the price for 1 unit of work.
SO 4x+3x+x=3200.
8x=3200.
X=3200/8 =400.
As we know C can do 1unit/day.
Hence wages for C =1x(and x=400).
Hence it's 400.
(1)
Sruthi said:
7 years ago
The total work-> 24 {LCM of days}.
A's 1day work->4,
B's 1day work->3,
with the help of C they completed the work in 3 days,
A+B+C=8 {24/3 ie, total work/no.of days to complete}.
4+3+C=8.
C=1.
Then, 3200/8=400.
C does 1unit so C gets 400.
If it does 2units 400 * 2.
A's 1day work->4,
B's 1day work->3,
with the help of C they completed the work in 3 days,
A+B+C=8 {24/3 ie, total work/no.of days to complete}.
4+3+C=8.
C=1.
Then, 3200/8=400.
C does 1unit so C gets 400.
If it does 2units 400 * 2.
(1)
Ishan raj said:
7 years ago
How 4:3:1 came? Anyone explain me.
(1)
HARIPRASAD K N said:
6 years ago
It is very simple;
A's 1day work = 1/6.
B's 1day work = 1/8.
A&B&C's 1day work=1/3.
C's 1day work=A+B+C'S 1day work-(A+B's 1day work)=(1/3)-(1/6)-(1/8) = 1/24.
A will do a complete work that is 1 full work in 6 day's means how much work he will do in 3 days given by;
6days--------->1 complete work
3days--------->?
Cross multiply then we get 1/2 work that is half of the work total work done by A.
Similarly, B ' s work done in 3 days is given by;
8 days-------->1 complete work,
3------------------?
Cross multiply we get 3/8 part of 1 complete work done by B.
Similarly, C's part of work is given by;
24 days --------->1 complete work
3 days ------------>?
By cross multiply, we get 1/8.
So,
For 1 complete work they get ------------>3200.
Then for A's (1/2) part of that work------>?
Cross multiply we get 1600.
Similarly for B
1 complete work------->3200
B's (3/8) part of the work--->?
By cross multiply, we get 1200.
Similarly for C.
1 Complete work ------>3200
C's part of (1/8) part of the work--->?
We get by cross multiply 400.
A's 1day work = 1/6.
B's 1day work = 1/8.
A&B&C's 1day work=1/3.
C's 1day work=A+B+C'S 1day work-(A+B's 1day work)=(1/3)-(1/6)-(1/8) = 1/24.
A will do a complete work that is 1 full work in 6 day's means how much work he will do in 3 days given by;
6days--------->1 complete work
3days--------->?
Cross multiply then we get 1/2 work that is half of the work total work done by A.
Similarly, B ' s work done in 3 days is given by;
8 days-------->1 complete work,
3------------------?
Cross multiply we get 3/8 part of 1 complete work done by B.
Similarly, C's part of work is given by;
24 days --------->1 complete work
3 days ------------>?
By cross multiply, we get 1/8.
So,
For 1 complete work they get ------------>3200.
Then for A's (1/2) part of that work------>?
Cross multiply we get 1600.
Similarly for B
1 complete work------->3200
B's (3/8) part of the work--->?
By cross multiply, we get 1200.
Similarly for C.
1 Complete work ------>3200
C's part of (1/8) part of the work--->?
We get by cross multiply 400.
(1)
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