Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - | ![]() |
1 | + | 1 | ![]() |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
![]() |
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | ![]() |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
184 comments Page 18 of 19.
Rajat Kumar Pal said:
8 years ago
Assume W=24 unit because multiple of 6 and 8 days.
A- 6days - 24/6=4u/d
B- 8 Days - 24/8=3u/d
C-?
A&B&C=24/3=8u/d.
So, C= 1u/d because A&B&C take 8u/d so subtract the total minus - individual A and B.
Pa: Pb: Pc = Wa: Wb: Wc
=Ra: Rb: Rc.
so Rc=3*1/24*3200=400.
A- 6days - 24/6=4u/d
B- 8 Days - 24/8=3u/d
C-?
A&B&C=24/3=8u/d.
So, C= 1u/d because A&B&C take 8u/d so subtract the total minus - individual A and B.
Pa: Pb: Pc = Wa: Wb: Wc
=Ra: Rb: Rc.
so Rc=3*1/24*3200=400.
EMI BHUYAN said:
8 years ago
Why here 1/3 is subtracted? Please explain.
Sushmaswaraj said:
8 years ago
Why should we multiply the wages with 24 to get the ratio?
Lithi said:
8 years ago
LCM 24.
A4
B3
ABC 8
So, c=1.
3200*1/8=400.
A4
B3
ABC 8
So, c=1.
3200*1/8=400.
Lalit said:
8 years ago
Why we need to multiply 3200*1/8?
Sunil said:
7 years ago
Option A is the right answer if you perfectly have understood the question.
Here in the question, it is given that A & B undertook to do the work for 3200 then how C can earn his wages from the first day.
Here Supposed A & B if do the work in 3 days then they will able to do - 21 work
But they did it in 3 days with the help of C.
So the method is here that;
For the first two days, A+B do - 14 work.
Then with the help of C they able to finish it in 3 days so A+B+C do last day - 10 work.
That means one-day work of C is - 3.
Then the work ratio of A+B for two days with A+B+C in one day is - 14:10 = 7:5.
Then (3200 ÷12) * 5 = 1250.
Then bye one-day work ratio of A B&C = 4:3:3.
Then (3200÷10) * 3 = 375,
Hence the answer is 375.
Here in the question, it is given that A & B undertook to do the work for 3200 then how C can earn his wages from the first day.
Here Supposed A & B if do the work in 3 days then they will able to do - 21 work
But they did it in 3 days with the help of C.
So the method is here that;
For the first two days, A+B do - 14 work.
Then with the help of C they able to finish it in 3 days so A+B+C do last day - 10 work.
That means one-day work of C is - 3.
Then the work ratio of A+B for two days with A+B+C in one day is - 14:10 = 7:5.
Then (3200 ÷12) * 5 = 1250.
Then bye one-day work ratio of A B&C = 4:3:3.
Then (3200÷10) * 3 = 375,
Hence the answer is 375.
Jishnu said:
7 years ago
@all.
A takes 6 days to complete the job. So a one day work is 1/6 and for 3 days it is 3/6 ie 1/2.
Similarly for B for 3 days work is 3/8 now A's share is 1/2 of 3200= 1600 B's share 3/8 of 3200=1200.
So C's share 3200--- (1600+1200) = 40.
A takes 6 days to complete the job. So a one day work is 1/6 and for 3 days it is 3/6 ie 1/2.
Similarly for B for 3 days work is 3/8 now A's share is 1/2 of 3200= 1600 B's share 3/8 of 3200=1200.
So C's share 3200--- (1600+1200) = 40.
Vidyasri said:
7 years ago
Thank you @Sai vinay.
Praveen kumar said:
7 years ago
The sum of three numbers is 275. If the ratio between the fast and second be 3:7 and that between the second and third be 4:5 then find the second number. Can anyone solve this?
Zeenat said:
7 years ago
1/6 * 24 : 1/8 * 24 :1/24 * 24 convert fraction to the whole number.
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C's share (for 3 days) = Rs.