Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
179 comments Page 17 of 18.
Bhanu said:
8 years ago
400 is the correct answer.
DivyaBatra said:
8 years ago
We are multiplying 3200 with 3 because of this reason:
See, A and B worked together and got 3200 for their work. But with the help of C, they could finish their work in 3 days. So, as we can see" with the help of C", so, C 's share is also given by both A and B as A and B has taken help from C.
So, C's share is calculated like this:-.
C's 1 day's work=1/24.
But if we do this:- 3200*1/24; this will be wrong as C will get wages for his 1 day work only.
But given in question that C has worked for 3 days, so 3200*1/24*3= i.e. 3 will also be multiplied, so to give C's share to him completely.
So, answer is 3200*1/24*3=400.
See, A and B worked together and got 3200 for their work. But with the help of C, they could finish their work in 3 days. So, as we can see" with the help of C", so, C 's share is also given by both A and B as A and B has taken help from C.
So, C's share is calculated like this:-.
C's 1 day's work=1/24.
But if we do this:- 3200*1/24; this will be wrong as C will get wages for his 1 day work only.
But given in question that C has worked for 3 days, so 3200*1/24*3= i.e. 3 will also be multiplied, so to give C's share to him completely.
So, answer is 3200*1/24*3=400.
Ved Prakash Singh said:
8 years ago
C's one day work=1/24.
so C's 3 days work is=1/8.
C will take 1/8 part of 3200 which is equal to 1/8*3200=400.
so C's 3 days work is=1/8.
C will take 1/8 part of 3200 which is equal to 1/8*3200=400.
RK singh said:
8 years ago
A -6 Days (24/6=4).
B -8 Days (24/8=3).
A+B+C -3 Days (24/3=8) Take L.C.M of 3,6,8 is 24 and 24 is divide each work Day of A,B, A+B+c, to find 1 Days work.
A+B+C=8, (8 unit=3200, then 1 unit =3200/8=400).
we know A+B=7.
Then C=1 We know =400 Rs. only.
B -8 Days (24/8=3).
A+B+C -3 Days (24/3=8) Take L.C.M of 3,6,8 is 24 and 24 is divide each work Day of A,B, A+B+c, to find 1 Days work.
A+B+C=8, (8 unit=3200, then 1 unit =3200/8=400).
we know A+B=7.
Then C=1 We know =400 Rs. only.
Bev said:
7 years ago
Easier way to work it out.
(3/8+3/6) -1 x 3200 = 400.
(3/8+3/6) -1 x 3200 = 400.
Rajat Kumar Pal said:
7 years ago
Assume W=24 unit because multiple of 6 and 8 days.
A- 6days - 24/6=4u/d
B- 8 Days - 24/8=3u/d
C-?
A&B&C=24/3=8u/d.
So, C= 1u/d because A&B&C take 8u/d so subtract the total minus - individual A and B.
Pa: Pb: Pc = Wa: Wb: Wc
=Ra: Rb: Rc.
so Rc=3*1/24*3200=400.
A- 6days - 24/6=4u/d
B- 8 Days - 24/8=3u/d
C-?
A&B&C=24/3=8u/d.
So, C= 1u/d because A&B&C take 8u/d so subtract the total minus - individual A and B.
Pa: Pb: Pc = Wa: Wb: Wc
=Ra: Rb: Rc.
so Rc=3*1/24*3200=400.
EMI BHUYAN said:
7 years ago
Why here 1/3 is subtracted? Please explain.
Sushmaswaraj said:
7 years ago
Why should we multiply the wages with 24 to get the ratio?
Lithi said:
7 years ago
LCM 24.
A4
B3
ABC 8
So, c=1.
3200*1/8=400.
A4
B3
ABC 8
So, c=1.
3200*1/8=400.
Lalit said:
7 years ago
Why we need to multiply 3200*1/8?
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