Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Suppose he sell x chocolates at the cost of 6 chocolates and gain profit or 20%.

By formula,
(6-x)/x*100 = 20.
x = 5.

6 chocolate for = 1 rupee.
1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.

//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.

1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.

So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.

How many % to 10% loss on the sale price will be the purchase price?

120 is = 6.
1 is = 6/120.

100 is = 6/120*100.
= 5 answer.

CP of 6 Toffees = Re.1 = 100ps.

Required gain% = 20%.
(i.e. for 100Ps the vendor should gain 20ps).

Therefore Profit(P) = 20ps.

We know SP=CP+P.

SP = 100+20 =120.

It means the vendor sold 6 toffees for 120ps.

Now from question:

For 120ps he sold 6 Toffees, then.
For 100ps how many he has to sell.

i.e. 120 ---- 6
100 ---- ?

By Cross multiplying we get,

120*? = 100*6

? = 600/120

? = 5

So to gain 20% as profit, the vendor has to by 6 Toffees per 1Re and has to sell 5 Toffees per 1Re.

Hello friends.

We can do use this method or not?
120/100*x = 6

=> x = 6*100/120
=> x = 5

1 Rs is 100% then 20% is 1/5 so 5 is answer.

By selling toffees at 20 for a rupee a man loss 4%.

To gain 20% for Re 1 he must sell?

I wonder no one argued for answer 6!

See salesmen bought toffee at 100 paise @ 16.67 paise each.

For gaining 20% he must get 120 paise or the toffee worth 20 paise after getting his C.P.

If he sell 5 toffee @ 100 paise, then he have only one toffee which worth 16.67 paise as he bought, i.e 16.67% profit, not 20%.

How can we value a toffee of 20 paise unless he sell it? He didn't sell last toffee for 20 paise, so he didn't gain 20 paise. So the one toffee left worth 16.67. Thus the profit is 16.67 paise i.e. 16.67%.

If and only if he sell all 6 toffees in 120 paise, he can gain 20% toffee.

I don't understand your explanation, can some one elaborate more please.