Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Cost price of 1 toffee is 1/6.
Now at 100 --- 1/6.
Then at 120 ---- ?.

120*1/6 = 20/100 = 1/5.

I.e. it means selling price of 1 toffee is 1/5.

1 rupee for 5 toffees.

C.P of 6 toffee = Re 1.
S.P of 6 toffee = 120% of Re 1 = 1.2.
S.P of 1 toffee = 6/1.2 = 5.

Guys it's so simple Just read the question carefully you'll get the answer easily.

You can go from the answer itself.

Option D - It can't be because it is already given that he sold 6 toffees for 1 rupee. So if he sells 6 toffees for 1 rupee he won't have any profit. So its not the answer.

Option B - If he sells four toffees for 1 rupee then cost of 1 toffee is 1/4=0.25, therefore 6 toffees will make 1.25rs. But it is given that 20 % profit. So it should be 1.20rs only. So its not the answer.

Option A - If he sells 3 toffees for 1 rupee then other three he'll sell for another one rupee, which gives him 100% profit. So its not the answer.

Option C - Obviously this should be the answer.

What is the gain in this question?

How 6*5/6 has come?

CP of 6 toffees = 1 Rs;
Means
CP of 6 toffees = 100 paise;

If we sell 6 toffees in 120 paise, We will get 20% profit in these 6 toffees,
Means we'll shell 6 toffees in 1.2Rs to get 20% profit.

Here,

1.2rs -----> 6.
1rs -------> 6/1.2 = 5.

C.P= 1.
Gain%=20.

We know, Gain%=Gain*100/C.P,
20=gain*100/1,
Or, gain=20/100,
Gain=1/5.

But gain=S.P-C.P.
Or S.P=gain+C.P.
S.P=1/5+1.
S.P=6/5 Rs.

i.e. We have to sold 6 No. for S.P 6/5.

But since we have to calculate how many we have to sell for Rs.1.
Therefore, for Rs.6/5 we will sold = 6 toffees.
For Rs.1 we will sold = 6/6/5.

Or 6x5/6=5 answer.

If cp is 200, 25% gain is added in sp what is the new sp and Gain ?

A person sold 12 chocolates for a rupee and made a loss of 25%. Find how many chocolates should he sell for a rupee to make 50% profit?