Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 9 of 22.
Garima yadav said:
1 decade ago
Can someone please explain more?
Obed said:
1 decade ago
100% + 20% (i.e profit) = 120% (for 6 toffees).
120% = 6.
1% = 6/120.
100% = (6/120)*100.
Value for 100% = 5.
120% = 6.
1% = 6/120.
100% = (6/120)*100.
Value for 100% = 5.
Kasinath23@Hyd said:
1 decade ago
Chain rule:
1Rs------ 6 toffees--------100%.
1Rs-------x toffees---------120%.
More Tofees per Rupee results less profit%. There it is inverse proportion.
1*6*100 = 1*x*120====> x = 5.
1Rs------ 6 toffees--------100%.
1Rs-------x toffees---------120%.
More Tofees per Rupee results less profit%. There it is inverse proportion.
1*6*100 = 1*x*120====> x = 5.
Sunil said:
1 decade ago
In question they have given 20%. Why your assuming 120%?
Riya said:
1 decade ago
@Sunil.
That goes by the formula: SP = (100+gain%)*CP/100.
That goes by the formula: SP = (100+gain%)*CP/100.
Suresh said:
1 decade ago
C.P of one toffees = 1/6 and S.P of one toffees = 120/100.1/6 = 1/5.
He must sold 5 toffees to get 20% profit.
He must sold 5 toffees to get 20% profit.
Nisarg said:
1 decade ago
C.P. of 1 toffee = 1/6 Rs.
Profit % = 20 %.
Now, profit % = (profit*100)/C.P.
So, profit = 20*(C.P.)/100.
Profit = 1/30 Rs for 1 toffee.
Now, S.P. = C.P.+profit.
S.P. = 1/6+1/30.
S.P. = 1/5 Rs for 1 toffee.
For S.P. = 1 Rs he has to sell 5 toffees.
Profit % = 20 %.
Now, profit % = (profit*100)/C.P.
So, profit = 20*(C.P.)/100.
Profit = 1/30 Rs for 1 toffee.
Now, S.P. = C.P.+profit.
S.P. = 1/6+1/30.
S.P. = 1/5 Rs for 1 toffee.
For S.P. = 1 Rs he has to sell 5 toffees.
Bhargav said:
1 decade ago
Guys I think this may be simple for you.
Given 1 rupee = 6 toffees.
So to avoid complexions in calculations.
Let's multiply with 100 on both side.
100 rupees = 600 toffees.
Given profit = 20%.
Sp = Cp+P.
Sp = 100+20.
Sp = 120.
Now, no of toffees = 600/120 = 5.
Hope that you can understand easily. Thank you guys. All the best.
Given 1 rupee = 6 toffees.
So to avoid complexions in calculations.
Let's multiply with 100 on both side.
100 rupees = 600 toffees.
Given profit = 20%.
Sp = Cp+P.
Sp = 100+20.
Sp = 120.
Now, no of toffees = 600/120 = 5.
Hope that you can understand easily. Thank you guys. All the best.
Sandu said:
1 decade ago
If a man gains 5% by selling nibs at the rate of 34 a rupee, how many rupee must he sell them. So as to gain 19%.
(2)
Farhat said:
1 decade ago
CP of 6 toffee = 1.
Gain = 20%.
Profit% = p*100/cp.
20 = p*100/1.
p = 20*1/100.
p = 1/5.
i.e; for 5 toffees for re. 1.
Gain = 20%.
Profit% = p*100/cp.
20 = p*100/1.
p = 20*1/100.
p = 1/5.
i.e; for 5 toffees for re. 1.
Post your comments here:
Quick links
Quantitative Aptitude
Verbal (English)
Reasoning
Programming
Interview
Placement Papers