Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. of each article be Re. 1 C.P. of x articles = Rs. x.
S.P. of x articles = Rs. 20.
Profit = Rs. (20 - x).
 |
 |
20 - x | x 100 = 25 |  |
| x |
2000 - 100x = 25x
125x = 2000
x = 16.
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/sidqvjUoZxY
Discussion:
356 comments Page 20 of 36.
Rajender Kumar said:
9 years ago
@Sanjeet could you tell me.
Hence, S. P of x article is Rs. 20.
So S. P. of 1 article = 20/x.
After that, I can't understand why are you using -1 for profit on one article.
Profit on one article= (20/x) - 1.
Please explain me.
Hence, S. P of x article is Rs. 20.
So S. P. of 1 article = 20/x.
After that, I can't understand why are you using -1 for profit on one article.
Profit on one article= (20/x) - 1.
Please explain me.
Manash said:
9 years ago
Let's assume that the CP of each item is Re 1.
Thus, for 20 items, total CP would be Rs 20.
Given that, he makes a profit of 25%,
ie) He is selling every Re 1 item for Rs. 1.25.
Now, since the CP of 20 items (i.e Rs 20) is equal to the SP of x items, therefore,
x * 1.25 = 20.
=> x= 16.
Thus, for 20 items, total CP would be Rs 20.
Given that, he makes a profit of 25%,
ie) He is selling every Re 1 item for Rs. 1.25.
Now, since the CP of 20 items (i.e Rs 20) is equal to the SP of x items, therefore,
x * 1.25 = 20.
=> x= 16.
Pawar Upendra Dinesh Reddy said:
9 years ago
@All
Sanjeet Kumar's explanation is clear and understandable.
Sanjeet Kumar's explanation is clear and understandable.
Snist said:
9 years ago
It should be noted that only x items are to be considered among 20 items during problem-solving.
So, sp of x items = 20 (since given sp of x = cp og 20 ||consider each item is of rs. 1).
And, cp of x items = x (since he bought the x for rs. X. Likewise 20 items for rs. 20).
Profit for selling x items = sp of x - cp of x = 20 - x.
Profit% = (profit/cp) * 100.
= {(20-x)/x} * 100.
So, sp of x items = 20 (since given sp of x = cp og 20 ||consider each item is of rs. 1).
And, cp of x items = x (since he bought the x for rs. X. Likewise 20 items for rs. 20).
Profit for selling x items = sp of x - cp of x = 20 - x.
Profit% = (profit/cp) * 100.
= {(20-x)/x} * 100.
Susanta halder said:
9 years ago
Thank you sanjeet kumar.
Nat said:
9 years ago
Profit = 25%.
So let c.p = 4 & s.p = 5.
20 * 4 = x * 5 (unknown=x),
16 = x.
So let c.p = 4 & s.p = 5.
20 * 4 = x * 5 (unknown=x),
16 = x.
Prabhleen Singh said:
9 years ago
Why in this question it is preassumed that C. P of one article is Re.1 and why not Rs.2 or any other value because when we take it to be Rs. 2 it gives x = 32?
Vaishu said:
9 years ago
Why we assume C.P = 100?
Ranjith said:
9 years ago
How you assume Rs. 100? Please clarify.
Ayush said:
9 years ago
@Prabhleen.
Let assume cp of 1 item is a, and sp of one item is b. Then according to question first line.
20a = xb.
Also by profit statement.
sp = (100 + gain%) cp.
=> b=125%a.
A replacing value of b in the previous equation.
=> 20a = x(125%a).
=> x = (20 * 100) /125.
=> x = 16.
Let assume cp of 1 item is a, and sp of one item is b. Then according to question first line.
20a = xb.
Also by profit statement.
sp = (100 + gain%) cp.
=> b=125%a.
A replacing value of b in the previous equation.
=> 20a = x(125%a).
=> x = (20 * 100) /125.
=> x = 16.
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