Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
15
16
18
25
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let C.P. of each article be Re. 1 C.P. of x articles = Rs. x.

S.P. of x articles = Rs. 20.

Profit = Rs. (20 - x).

20 - x x 100 = 25
x

2000 - 100x = 25x

125x = 2000

x = 16.

Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/sidqvjUoZxY

Discussion:
354 comments Page 16 of 36.

Subhajit Mitra said:   9 years ago
Cost price of m article is equal to selling price of n article then,

Gain or loss% = (m - n/n) *100.

Here,

25 = (20 - x/x)/100.

X = 16.

Raunak said:   9 years ago
@Sanjeet Kumar.

Very well explained and thanks a lot.

Rajender Kumar said:   9 years ago
@Sanjeet could you tell me.

Hence, S. P of x article is Rs. 20.

So S. P. of 1 article = 20/x.

After that, I can't understand why are you using -1 for profit on one article.
Profit on one article= (20/x) - 1.

Please explain me.

Manash said:   9 years ago
Let's assume that the CP of each item is Re 1.

Thus, for 20 items, total CP would be Rs 20.

Given that, he makes a profit of 25%,

ie) He is selling every Re 1 item for Rs. 1.25.

Now, since the CP of 20 items (i.e Rs 20) is equal to the SP of x items, therefore,

x * 1.25 = 20.

=> x= 16.

Pawar Upendra Dinesh Reddy said:   9 years ago
@All

Sanjeet Kumar's explanation is clear and understandable.

Snist said:   9 years ago
It should be noted that only x items are to be considered among 20 items during problem-solving.

So, sp of x items = 20 (since given sp of x = cp og 20 ||consider each item is of rs. 1).

And, cp of x items = x (since he bought the x for rs. X. Likewise 20 items for rs. 20).

Profit for selling x items = sp of x - cp of x = 20 - x.

Profit% = (profit/cp) * 100.

= {(20-x)/x} * 100.

Susanta halder said:   9 years ago
Thank you sanjeet kumar.

Nat said:   9 years ago
Profit = 25%.
So let c.p = 4 & s.p = 5.
20 * 4 = x * 5 (unknown=x),
16 = x.

Prabhleen Singh said:   9 years ago
Why in this question it is preassumed that C. P of one article is Re.1 and why not Rs.2 or any other value because when we take it to be Rs. 2 it gives x = 32?

Vaishu said:   9 years ago
Why we assume C.P = 100?


Post your comments here:

Your comments will be displayed after verification.