Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 24)
24.
A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a work in 12 days independently, the number of days in which A and B can together finish the work in :
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Ratio of rates of working of A and B = 2 : 1.
So, ratio of times taken = 1 : 2.
B's 1 day's work = | 1 | . |
12 |
![]() |
1 | ; (2 times of B's work) |
6 |
(A + B)'s 1 day's work = | ![]() |
1 | + | 1 | ![]() |
= | 3 | = | 1 | . |
6 | 12 | 12 | 4 |
So, A and B together can finish the work in 4 days.
Discussion:
28 comments Page 1 of 3.
Pedada PavanGovind said:
2 years ago
A:B is 24:12 = 1:2 =>3 total efficiency.
Given B complete in 12 days.
Then together work in 12/3 = 4 days.
Given B complete in 12 days.
Then together work in 12/3 = 4 days.
(4)
Mohit Rathore said:
2 years ago
16day * 20w = 16m * 15day.
320w = 240m.
4w = 3m,
M :W = 4 : 3.
( W= woman, M= Man).
320w = 240m.
4w = 3m,
M :W = 4 : 3.
( W= woman, M= Man).
Karthick M said:
3 years ago
Easiest method to solve this type of problem..
Given. A=2B.
(A+B)'s 1day work = 1/12=(2B+B)'s 1day work
3B's 1day work =1/12.
B's 1-day work =1/4.
So, B's whole work done is 4 days.
Given. A=2B.
(A+B)'s 1day work = 1/12=(2B+B)'s 1day work
3B's 1day work =1/12.
B's 1-day work =1/4.
So, B's whole work done is 4 days.
(1)
Aditya said:
3 years ago
A finished work in 6 days.
B finishes work in 12 days.
Calculating LCM we get 12 which is total work.
Now, work efficiency of A = 12/6 = 2 unit/day,
work efficiency of B = 12/12 = 1 unit/day,
working together A+B = 2+1 = 3unit/day,
Therefore for finishing 12 unit work together they need 12/3 = 4 days.
B finishes work in 12 days.
Calculating LCM we get 12 which is total work.
Now, work efficiency of A = 12/6 = 2 unit/day,
work efficiency of B = 12/12 = 1 unit/day,
working together A+B = 2+1 = 3unit/day,
Therefore for finishing 12 unit work together they need 12/3 = 4 days.
(5)
Roy said:
4 years ago
@All.
Given A=2B.
B's 1 day work = 1/12,
So A's 1 day work=2*1/12=1/6.
(a+b)1 day = 1/6 + 1/12 = 1/4,
Hence 4 days.
Given A=2B.
B's 1 day work = 1/12,
So A's 1 day work=2*1/12=1/6.
(a+b)1 day = 1/6 + 1/12 = 1/4,
Hence 4 days.
(3)
Uma said:
5 years ago
A=x, B = 2x.
1/x+1/2x = 1/12,
3/2x = 1/12,
3/6 = 2, x = 2.
so, B = 2x, 2 * 2 = 4.
1/x+1/2x = 1/12,
3/2x = 1/12,
3/6 = 2, x = 2.
so, B = 2x, 2 * 2 = 4.
(1)
Manzoor said:
5 years ago
No @Veer
According to me, the solution is;
2A=B in time.
There, the efficiency is inversely proportional to time.
Efficiency of A:B = 1:2
Total work is done by B = No of day's * efficiency
= 12*2 = 24.
If together done the same work= 24÷3.
= 8 days.
Please correct me, If I am wrong.
According to me, the solution is;
2A=B in time.
There, the efficiency is inversely proportional to time.
Efficiency of A:B = 1:2
Total work is done by B = No of day's * efficiency
= 12*2 = 24.
If together done the same work= 24÷3.
= 8 days.
Please correct me, If I am wrong.
Veer said:
5 years ago
The easiest way:
A : B = 2 : 1 (work).
B = 12.
A can finish work 1 --- 12.
2 ---- 6.
A+B = 12*6/12+6 = 4.
A : B = 2 : 1 (work).
B = 12.
A can finish work 1 --- 12.
2 ---- 6.
A+B = 12*6/12+6 = 4.
Ashish said:
7 years ago
what is 1:2 here?
Rajat pundir said:
7 years ago
a/b=2/1.
Now using the ratio method.
1/12=1/3*(a+b).
1/4=a+b.
Hence 4 days.
Now using the ratio method.
1/12=1/3*(a+b).
1/4=a+b.
Hence 4 days.
(1)
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