Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 boy's 1 day's work = y.
| Then, 6x + 8y = | 1 | and 26x + 48y = | 1 | . |
| 10 | 2 |
| Solving these two equations, we get : x = | 1 | and y = | 1 | . |
| 100 | 200 |
| (15 men + 20 boy)'s 1 day's work = |  |
15 | + | 20 |  |
= | 1 | . |
| 100 | 200 | 4 |
15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.
Discussion:
202 comments Page 9 of 21.
Sanjay Chauhan said:
1 year ago
6 men = 1/10.
1 men = 1/10 * 1/6 = 1/60.
8 boys = 1/10.
1 boy = 1/10 * 1/8 = 1/80.
Now,
15 men = 15/60
20 boys = 20/80
15/60 + 20/80 = 4.
Ans - 4days.
1 men = 1/10 * 1/6 = 1/60.
8 boys = 1/10.
1 boy = 1/10 * 1/8 = 1/80.
Now,
15 men = 15/60
20 boys = 20/80
15/60 + 20/80 = 4.
Ans - 4days.
(80)
Himadri said:
1 decade ago
This is also easy way friends...
6x+8y=1/10
2(3x+4y)=1/10
3x+4y=1/20
both side multiple with 5
15x+20y=1/4
so 1/4 work complete =1 day
total work=4days
6x+8y=1/10
2(3x+4y)=1/10
3x+4y=1/20
both side multiple with 5
15x+20y=1/4
so 1/4 work complete =1 day
total work=4days
Priya said:
1 decade ago
6x+8y = 1/10.
26x+48y = 1/2.
Multiply Eq first by 5.
30x+40x = 1/2.
26x+48y = 30x+40y from this x = 2y put in eq 1 We get y = 1/200 And x = 1/100.
26x+48y = 1/2.
Multiply Eq first by 5.
30x+40x = 1/2.
26x+48y = 30x+40y from this x = 2y put in eq 1 We get y = 1/200 And x = 1/100.
Subham said:
7 years ago
@All.
M1D1=M2D2.
M1=6men+8boys=14
D1=10,M2=15men+20boys=35
D2=?
or,D2=(M1XD1)/M2.
or,D2=(14X10)/35=4.
So the answer will be 4 days.
M1D1=M2D2.
M1=6men+8boys=14
D1=10,M2=15men+20boys=35
D2=?
or,D2=(M1XD1)/M2.
or,D2=(14X10)/35=4.
So the answer will be 4 days.
Nagarjun said:
1 decade ago
@Bharathi.
Hey its not 1/100+1/200=4
Its (15/100)+(20/100)
This vl give 1/4, vch is 1 day's work, and finally they can complete it in 4 days.
Hey its not 1/100+1/200=4
Its (15/100)+(20/100)
This vl give 1/4, vch is 1 day's work, and finally they can complete it in 4 days.
Naresh said:
8 years ago
The total work is same if take all men and boys are equal then we can write.
(6+8)*10=(15+20)*x.
By solving x=4.
As we know work =eff*time.
(6+8)*10=(15+20)*x.
By solving x=4.
As we know work =eff*time.
Pravin said:
6 years ago
6x+8y = 1/10,
2(3x+4y) = 1/10,
3x+4y = 1/20,
Both side multiple with 5,
15x+20y = 1/4.
So 1/4 work completes = 1 day.
total work = 4days.
2(3x+4y) = 1/10,
3x+4y = 1/20,
Both side multiple with 5,
15x+20y = 1/4.
So 1/4 work completes = 1 day.
total work = 4days.
Sapna verma said:
7 years ago
6*2 = 12 + 8 * 2 =16.
6 ÷ 2 = 3 --- 8 ÷ 2=4,
=15 and = 20.
15/6= 2.5 times also 20/8= 2.5 times.
Hence 10/2.5 = 4 days.
6 ÷ 2 = 3 --- 8 ÷ 2=4,
=15 and = 20.
15/6= 2.5 times also 20/8= 2.5 times.
Hence 10/2.5 = 4 days.
Pradeep Oram said:
1 decade ago
@Sidharth.
There is also mentioned 2nd eq. i.e 26x+48y = 1/2.
And it doesn't relate to 3rd eq.
It may your procedure is quite wrong?
There is also mentioned 2nd eq. i.e 26x+48y = 1/2.
And it doesn't relate to 3rd eq.
It may your procedure is quite wrong?
Rathod said:
9 years ago
Easiest way:
6 men and 8 boys = 1/10 days.
5 men and 48 boys = ?
6 * 5/2 and 48 * 5/2 = 1/10 * 5/2,
15 men and 48 boys = 4 days.
6 men and 8 boys = 1/10 days.
5 men and 48 boys = ?
6 * 5/2 and 48 * 5/2 = 1/10 * 5/2,
15 men and 48 boys = 4 days.
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