Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
4 days
5 days
6 days
7 days
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 boy's 1 day's work = y.

Then, 6x + 8y = 1 and 26x + 48y = 1 .
10 2

Solving these two equations, we get : x = 1 and y = 1 .
100 200

(15 men + 20 boy)'s 1 day's work = 15 + 20 = 1 .
100 200 4

15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.

Discussion:
202 comments Page 4 of 21.

Pravas said:   9 years ago
We can do also,
(6m + 8b) * 10 = (26m + 48B) * 2,
=> 60m + 80b = 52m + 96b,
=> 8m = 16b,
=> m/b = 16/8 = 2 : 1.

Total work = (6m + 8b) * 10.
= (6 * 2 + 8 * 1) * 10 = 200.

As per question, 15 men and 20 boys will do the same work in => (15 * 2 + 20 * 1) = 50 i.e That is m/b = 2 : 1.
Total days = total work/total men and boys => 200/50 = 4 days.
(2)

Ravikiran said:   6 years ago
If 6 men and 8 boys take 10days to complete a work.
Which means 3 men and 4 boys take 20days to complete a work.
Then 3*5 (15 men) and 4*5(20 boys) take (20/5) which is 4 days.
(2)

Sathish said:   4 months ago
From the above work done, take anyone 140=35*x.
x = 4.
(2)

Sangeetha said:   2 decades ago
Can you please solve these 2 equations and show me the result?
(1)

Jyothi said:   1 decade ago
Hi siddu.

I'm jyothi. You are genious. Thanks friend.
(1)

Rorororo said:   8 years ago
Let M denotes the work done by a man in 1 day and B denotes the work done by a boy in 1 day.

Now, 6 men and 8 boys do the work in 10 days means 10(6M+8B) = 1.

Similarly, 26 men and 48 boys do the work in 2 days means 2(26M+48B) = 1.
=> 10(6M+8B) = 2(26M+48B),
=> 60M + 80B = 52M + 96B,
=> 8M = 16B,
=> 1M = 2B.

Thus, if we employ 15 men and 20 boys, we mean to say; 15M + 20B.
= 30B + 20B = 50B.

Now, (6M + 8B) do the work in 10 days.
=> (12B + 8B) do the work in 10 days.
=> 20B do the work in 10 days.
=> 1B do the work in 10*20 = 200 days.
=> 50B will do the work in 200/50 = 4 days.
(1)

Ashwani roshan said:   7 years ago
(6m+8b)*10=(26m+48b)*2=(15m+20b)*x.
60m+80b=52m+96b.
m/b=2/1.
(26*2+48*1)*2=(15*2+20*1)*x.
(52+48)*2=(30+20)*x.
200/50=X.
X = 4days.
(1)

Yaamu said:   7 years ago
Not understanding this please anyone can explain?
(1)

Devendra said:   6 years ago
Given that.

6M+8B = 1/10 (1'd work). ----------------[1].

26M+49B = 1/2 (1'd work). ----------------[2].

Sub eq (2) - eq (1).

20M+40B = 1/2-1/10=4/10.

2M+4B = 4/100 = 1/25.

Total time 25.
(1)

Bantu Venkatesh said:   6 years ago
(6M+8B)10=(26M+48B)2.

8M=16B.
M:B
2:1.

12B + 8B-----10days
30B + 20B------?

=> 20/50 *10=4days.
(1)


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