Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 boy's 1 day's work = y.
| Then, 6x + 8y = | 1 | and 26x + 48y = | 1 | . |
| 10 | 2 |
| Solving these two equations, we get : x = | 1 | and y = | 1 | . |
| 100 | 200 |
| (15 men + 20 boy)'s 1 day's work = |  |
15 | + | 20 |  |
= | 1 | . |
| 100 | 200 | 4 |
15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.
Discussion:
203 comments Page 21 of 21.
Anshul said:
7 years ago
Manpower 6M+8B 26M+48B
Rate 1 5
Time 10 2
Work 10 10
From this use M1*R1*T1/W = M2*R2*T2/W2.
We will get 30M+40B = 26M+48B.
From this equation, we can see that if 4 men are decreased then 8 boys are required to do the same work at the same time.
Now, we need to find the days required for 15M+20B.
15M+20B is nothing but 25 men. (because of 1 man = 2 boys).
Now if we find the rate at which 15M+20B works T can be easily calculated.
To find the rate,
Take 6M+8B works at rate of 1. i.e 10 men work at rate of 1.
We need to find rate at which 25 men will work.
therefore,10 men at rate of 1,20 men at 2 and hence 25 at 2.5.
Manpower 6M+8B 26M+48B 15M+20B
Rate 1 5 2.5
Time 10 2 4
Work 10 10 4
you can do this mentally pretty fast if practiced.
Rate 1 5
Time 10 2
Work 10 10
From this use M1*R1*T1/W = M2*R2*T2/W2.
We will get 30M+40B = 26M+48B.
From this equation, we can see that if 4 men are decreased then 8 boys are required to do the same work at the same time.
Now, we need to find the days required for 15M+20B.
15M+20B is nothing but 25 men. (because of 1 man = 2 boys).
Now if we find the rate at which 15M+20B works T can be easily calculated.
To find the rate,
Take 6M+8B works at rate of 1. i.e 10 men work at rate of 1.
We need to find rate at which 25 men will work.
therefore,10 men at rate of 1,20 men at 2 and hence 25 at 2.5.
Manpower 6M+8B 26M+48B 15M+20B
Rate 1 5 2.5
Time 10 2 4
Work 10 10 4
you can do this mentally pretty fast if practiced.
Balu said:
6 years ago
If X is the overall work then,
X=10(6m+8b)=60m+80b-----1st eqn.
X=2(26m+48b)=52m+96b-----2nd eqn.
Equating the both eqns 1 and 2
We get m:b=1:2 it means 1man equal to 2 boys so 15m+20b=30b+20b=50b.
From eqn 1,12b+8b=20b can do in 10days.
Then cm to 20b=10.
50b=y.
Y=4 days.
X=10(6m+8b)=60m+80b-----1st eqn.
X=2(26m+48b)=52m+96b-----2nd eqn.
Equating the both eqns 1 and 2
We get m:b=1:2 it means 1man equal to 2 boys so 15m+20b=30b+20b=50b.
From eqn 1,12b+8b=20b can do in 10days.
Then cm to 20b=10.
50b=y.
Y=4 days.
Malay said:
6 years ago
Can't understand this 2 equation. Please, anyone, explain.
Post your comments here:
Quick links
Quantitative Aptitude
Verbal (English)
Reasoning
Programming
Interview
Placement Papers