Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
179 comments Page 7 of 18.
Prince dubey said:
1 decade ago
Wages ratio is not important short method is.
C work in 3 days.
A & B money = 3200.
C work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3- (1/6+1/8) ).
Last calculation is 3*1/24*3200.
Answer is 400.
C work in 3 days.
A & B money = 3200.
C work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3- (1/6+1/8) ).
Last calculation is 3*1/24*3200.
Answer is 400.
Karun said:
1 decade ago
A efficiency 16.66.
B efficiency 12.50.
So total work of A+B is 29.16 remaining 70.84.
So 70.84/3 = 24(C efficency )
B efficiency 12.50.
So total work of A+B is 29.16 remaining 70.84.
So 70.84/3 = 24(C efficency )
Satyakrishna said:
1 decade ago
Is there any shortcut method to find this, by directly substituting the values?
Vinod Rathod said:
1 decade ago
Leave every method go for simple method.
A alone can do the work in 6 days.
B alone can do the work 8 days.
They took the work at Rs 3200 with the help of C.
Lets take a per day work of A at Rs x.
Total = 3200/6 days.
= 533.33*3 days.
A = 1599.99 = 1600.
B = 3200/8 days.
= 400 * 3 days.
B = 1200.
A+B = 1600+1200 = 2800 And left 3200 -2800 = 400.
C = 400 Answer.
A alone can do the work in 6 days.
B alone can do the work 8 days.
They took the work at Rs 3200 with the help of C.
Lets take a per day work of A at Rs x.
Total = 3200/6 days.
= 533.33*3 days.
A = 1599.99 = 1600.
B = 3200/8 days.
= 400 * 3 days.
B = 1200.
A+B = 1600+1200 = 2800 And left 3200 -2800 = 400.
C = 400 Answer.
Rohan said:
1 decade ago
1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 and ratio 4:3:1.
Answer above says highest number is 24 so multiply all by 24... is that the logic?
Answer above says highest number is 24 so multiply all by 24... is that the logic?
Alby said:
1 decade ago
From the ratio itself we can calculate.
A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1.
Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200.
= 1/8 of 3200.
= 400.
A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1.
Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200.
= 1/8 of 3200.
= 400.
Sai Mounika said:
1 decade ago
Why we are multiply all by 24? I think C's 1 day work is 1/24 so we have to multiply all by 24 in order to get the 3 days work. Am I right?
Vivek jasele said:
1 decade ago
4:3:1.
C share will be simply as already we have count for 3 days work.
1/4+3+1*32000 = 1/8*3200 = 400.
Answer.
C share will be simply as already we have count for 3 days work.
1/4+3+1*32000 = 1/8*3200 = 400.
Answer.
Vinnu said:
1 decade ago
See from the problem we can calculate c's 1 day work = 1/24.
It means he can complete work in 24 days.
So for calculating wage of c we can say for 24 days he is to be paid 3200. But for 3 days he is to be paid?
Cross multiply we get (3*3200) /24=400.
Its easy.
It means he can complete work in 24 days.
So for calculating wage of c we can say for 24 days he is to be paid 3200. But for 3 days he is to be paid?
Cross multiply we get (3*3200) /24=400.
Its easy.
Hemanth said:
1 decade ago
The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs.3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs.3200 individually. Correct me if im wrong.
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