Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Rs. 375
Rs. 400
Rs. 600
Rs. 800
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C's 1 day's work = 1 - 1 + 1 = 1 - 7 = 1 .
3 6 8 3 24 24

A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 1 : 1 : 1 = 4 : 3 : 1.
6 8 24

C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. 3 x 1 x 3200 = Rs. 400.
24

Discussion:
179 comments Page 5 of 18.

Somesh said:   1 decade ago
If one person A takes "x" days to complete a work alone and another person B takes "y" days to complete the same work alone, then the number days both A and B take working together is : x y/ (x + y).

I hope you will surely understand what you have to do.

RK singh said:   8 years ago
A -6 Days (24/6=4).
B -8 Days (24/8=3).
A+B+C -3 Days (24/3=8) Take L.C.M of 3,6,8 is 24 and 24 is divide each work Day of A,B, A+B+c, to find 1 Days work.
A+B+C=8, (8 unit=3200, then 1 unit =3200/8=400).
we know A+B=7.
Then C=1 We know =400 Rs. only.

Chethu said:   1 decade ago
Good Question Shaju,

With the ratio you would get to know the share of A, B and C.

A:B:C = 4:3:1

So the wages can be calculated easily (4*400:3*400:1*400) which is equal to (1600:1200:400) if we add it, it would give us the total amount if 3200.

Ranjeet singh said:   1 decade ago
Because lastly A, B, C are working together for completing the work and we all know that no one work for free of cost so we will have to involve C in 3200 distribution. Initially only A and B working that's why 3200 distributed between A and B.

Thomas said:   10 years ago
C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. 3x1x3200 = Rs. 400.

Seems this step has confused everyone.

Ideally we should go like this:

C share is 1 from (4:3:1).

So the share from total amount is C'share 1/4+3+1 = 1/8.

C's Share of Money 1/8*3200 = 400.

Jishnu said:   7 years ago
@all.

A takes 6 days to complete the job. So a one day work is 1/6 and for 3 days it is 3/6 ie 1/2.

Similarly for B for 3 days work is 3/8 now A's share is 1/2 of 3200= 1600 B's share 3/8 of 3200=1200.

So C's share 3200--- (1600+1200) = 40.

Uday said:   1 decade ago
Suppose if we want A share, then.

A/(A+B+C)*3200 = 4/(4+3+1)*3200.

= 4/8*3200.

A's share = 1600.

B's share = B/(A+B+C) = 3/(4+3+1)*3200.

= 3/8*3200.

B's share = 1200.

Similarly C's share = 400.

Therefore Sum of shares of A+B+C = 3200.

Anandhakumar said:   1 decade ago
Let us take total work as the L.C.M of 6,8,3 i.e 24.

So A's per day work is 24/6=4, B's =24/8=3, a+b+c's=24/3=8.

So C's Ability is= 8-(4+3)=1 ie(a+b+c-a-b).

So the amount has to be divided into 4:3:1

So C's share is (1/8)*3200=400

Ajinkya said:   8 years ago
A's 1 days work=1/6.A worked for 3 days.
So A's income will be 3200*3/6=1600 RS.
B work for 3 days = 3/8,
B's income =3/8*3200 = 1200,
So C's income= 3200-(A+B income),
= 3200-2800,
= 400.

Bitu said:   1 decade ago
According to the question 3200.00 was given to be the amount taken by both A & B collectively for completing the work together. Then how could it be treated as the total amount obtained by the three to be distributed among.


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