Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
179 comments Page 5 of 18.
Shro said:
1 decade ago
Why to subtract C's work from (A and B) in 1st step?
Adithya said:
1 decade ago
A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 4 : 3 : 1.
so
total wages(4+3+1)
3200/8 =400
for A = 400*4 = 1600....B = 3*400=1200.
for C =400
so
total wages(4+3+1)
3200/8 =400
for A = 400*4 = 1600....B = 3*400=1200.
for C =400
Muhammad Akmal said:
1 decade ago
Please explain that how (1/3 -7/24) = C's one day's work?
What is the logic?
What is the logic?
Chandana said:
1 decade ago
C's one days work is 1/3.
A and B's one day work is 1/6 and 1/8 respectively.
Now to know the amount of work done by C, we have to calculate the work done by A and B, i.e.,
1/6 + 1/8= 7/24, now we have to calculate how much work C alone has alone done so, 1/3 - 7/24 take LMC you will get 8-7 / 24 you will get 1/24
And now 3*1/2*3200 = 400.
A and B's one day work is 1/6 and 1/8 respectively.
Now to know the amount of work done by C, we have to calculate the work done by A and B, i.e.,
1/6 + 1/8= 7/24, now we have to calculate how much work C alone has alone done so, 1/3 - 7/24 take LMC you will get 8-7 / 24 you will get 1/24
And now 3*1/2*3200 = 400.
Srisha said:
1 decade ago
A very simple method is :
The total completion money of the job is 3200.
A completes the job in 6 day's.
So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33
B completes the job in 8 day's.
So his per day fees is 3200/8=400
a,b & c completes the job in 3days.
(3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200
(3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200
3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)=3200-2800
C's full fee of the work is = 400
The total completion money of the job is 3200.
A completes the job in 6 day's.
So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33
B completes the job in 8 day's.
So his per day fees is 3200/8=400
a,b & c completes the job in 3days.
(3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200
(3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200
3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)=3200-2800
C's full fee of the work is = 400
Rahul chourasia said:
1 decade ago
Wages ratio is not important short method is
c work in 3 days
a & b money =3200
c work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3-(1/6+1/8))
last calculation is 3*1/24*3200
ans is 400
c work in 3 days
a & b money =3200
c work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3-(1/6+1/8))
last calculation is 3*1/24*3200
ans is 400
Ayan sett said:
1 decade ago
@pradeep koney
thanks..
thanks..
Bitu said:
1 decade ago
According to the question 3200.00 was given to be the amount taken by both A & B collectively for completing the work together. Then how could it be treated as the total amount obtained by the three to be distributed among.
Ranjeet singh said:
1 decade ago
Because lastly A, B, C are working together for completing the work and we all know that no one work for free of cost so we will have to involve C in 3200 distribution. Initially only A and B working that's why 3200 distributed between A and B.
Maruthupandian said:
1 decade ago
@Arnab.
In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone?
won't it be (3-24/7) ?
because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C.
In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone?
won't it be (3-24/7) ?
because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C.
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