Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
179 comments Page 4 of 18.
Kartik m. said:
1 decade ago
@pradeep koney
Your method is nice.
Your method is nice.
Aitya said:
1 decade ago
A very simple method is :-
The total complition money of the job is 3200.
A completes the job in 6 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33
B completes the job in 8 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/8=400
a,b & c complets the job in 3days..
(3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200
(3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200
3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)
=3200-2800
C' full fee of the work is=400
The total complition money of the job is 3200.
A completes the job in 6 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33
B completes the job in 8 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/8=400
a,b & c complets the job in 3days..
(3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200
(3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200
3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)
=3200-2800
C' full fee of the work is=400
Ramkumar said:
1 decade ago
Pradeep Koney method is easily understood.
Naman said:
1 decade ago
This is very easy to understand .....
in last line....
there wages is 4:3:1 ....so wage of c is..
===1*3200/(4+3+1)====3200/8===400
in last line....
there wages is 4:3:1 ....so wage of c is..
===1*3200/(4+3+1)====3200/8===400
Parvatraj said:
1 decade ago
According the quetion,
A can do in 1 day 1/6 work. in 3 days 3/6 work.
B can do in 1 day 1/8 work. in 3 days 3/8 work.
So C has done (1-(3/6+3/8)) work. That is 1/8 work.
So he has to get 1/3 of total amount. i.e, 3200/8=400 rs.
But the calculation they have given is wrong. but answer is right unfortunately.
A can do in 1 day 1/6 work. in 3 days 3/6 work.
B can do in 1 day 1/8 work. in 3 days 3/8 work.
So C has done (1-(3/6+3/8)) work. That is 1/8 work.
So he has to get 1/3 of total amount. i.e, 3200/8=400 rs.
But the calculation they have given is wrong. but answer is right unfortunately.
Sekhar said:
1 decade ago
Pradeep koni explains very very good.
Sri said:
1 decade ago
@Pradeep koney.
Thanks Pradeep your method is easy.
Thanks Pradeep your method is easy.
Ess said:
1 decade ago
Why you are multiplying 3200 in c's 3 day work ?
Prasad said:
1 decade ago
C's share is=[1/(4+3+1)]*3200;
Is it ok to solve by this method
Is it ok to solve by this method
Tabish said:
1 decade ago
Why multiplied by 24 to the A,B,C's one day work as it is the work completed by C in one day?
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