Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
184 comments Page 17 of 19.
Ramya said:
1 decade ago
Why we have to multiply with 24 to get the ratio as 4:3:1?
Balaram said:
1 decade ago
Hi Satheesh.
From the step 1/c+1/6+1/8=1/3, you can get the work that can be done by the c in one day.
So, the part of work that is contributed by c in 3 days, is 3*work done in one day. Hence, the step 3*1/24 is the total work done by c in 3 days. Now, the wage that has to come to c is just multiplication of his work to the total wage for the whole work.
Hope, you would get the logic now.
From the step 1/c+1/6+1/8=1/3, you can get the work that can be done by the c in one day.
So, the part of work that is contributed by c in 3 days, is 3*work done in one day. Hence, the step 3*1/24 is the total work done by c in 3 days. Now, the wage that has to come to c is just multiplication of his work to the total wage for the whole work.
Hope, you would get the logic now.
Satheesh said:
1 decade ago
What is the need to multiply 3 in last step = 3*1/24*3200 (since we already subtracted (1/3) ?
KIRAN said:
1 decade ago
In the end, why we have multiplied 3200 with C's 3 day work whereas it is the salary of both A and B ?
Anil said:
1 decade ago
Wages is necessary for this question ?
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
See jeevana ,
a,b,c can complete work in 3 days
so a,b,c can complete a work in 1 days=1/3...........(1)
a and b can complete work in 1 day=1/6+1/8=7/24works.....(2)
c's one day works =a's and b's one day works is subtracted from a b c one days work that is(1-2)
So 1/24 works done by c
c 's 3 days work is 3/24=1/8
so c's share is = 3200/8=400
a,b,c can complete work in 3 days
so a,b,c can complete a work in 1 days=1/3...........(1)
a and b can complete work in 1 day=1/6+1/8=7/24works.....(2)
c's one day works =a's and b's one day works is subtracted from a b c one days work that is(1-2)
So 1/24 works done by c
c 's 3 days work is 3/24=1/8
so c's share is = 3200/8=400
Jeevana said:
1 decade ago
Can anyone help me with the first step?
why do like that only
why do like that only
Vandhanasuberwal said:
1 decade ago
We can solve it as 1/8 multiply 3200.
Shashank A said:
1 decade ago
The last step of calculating 3*1/24*3200 is wrong as C would alone earn 3200 that way at the end of 24 days..:).The idea should be 1 part of 8 parts earned amongst A ,B and C is earned by C.Hence its 400....
Jagjeet said:
2 decades ago
I agree in question they should mention 3200 per day.
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