Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
186 comments Page 15 of 19.
Ankit said:
1 decade ago
A finish work in day = 6,
B finish work in day = 8,
LCM = 24.
A doing work in one day = 24/6 = 4,
B doing work in one day = 24/8 = 3,
If both are work together, so one day work = 4 + 3 = 7.
So, one day work = 7/24,
In three day = 3(7/24),
A and B combined rupee = 21/24*3200 = 2800.
So, C = 3200 - 2800 = 400.
Please suggest me, this is true or wrong.
B finish work in day = 8,
LCM = 24.
A doing work in one day = 24/6 = 4,
B doing work in one day = 24/8 = 3,
If both are work together, so one day work = 4 + 3 = 7.
So, one day work = 7/24,
In three day = 3(7/24),
A and B combined rupee = 21/24*3200 = 2800.
So, C = 3200 - 2800 = 400.
Please suggest me, this is true or wrong.
RAJNISH JHA said:
1 decade ago
Given,
A finish work in 6 days.
B finish work in 8 days.
Then C's 1 day work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/24.
Then ratio of a : b : c = 4 : 3 : 1.
Then, C share for 3 days = 3 * 1/24 * 3200 = 400-> answer.
A finish work in 6 days.
B finish work in 8 days.
Then C's 1 day work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/24.
Then ratio of a : b : c = 4 : 3 : 1.
Then, C share for 3 days = 3 * 1/24 * 3200 = 400-> answer.
Naveen said:
1 decade ago
@Pradeep, your method is really superb and very easy to understand. Thank you so much.
Vasanth said:
1 decade ago
Another solution :
By ratio their wages 4 : 3 : 1, totally 8parts
(i.e) 4 + 3 + 1 = 8. athe value of one part = 3200/8 = 400.
C part is one so the answer is 400 rupees.
By ratio their wages 4 : 3 : 1, totally 8parts
(i.e) 4 + 3 + 1 = 8. athe value of one part = 3200/8 = 400.
C part is one so the answer is 400 rupees.
Nithya said:
1 decade ago
Your method is good % easy, Thanks @Pradeep Koney.
Bharath said:
10 years ago
NO need of looking for ratios. Just understand the question and do logically.
A = 6days
B = 8days
C = ?
A + B + C = 3200rupees.
Now we need to find how many days would C take to complete his work.
1/6 + 1/8+ C = 1/3.
C = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8).
1/3 - (7/24).
1/24.
So, here we found that C can do 1/24 work in one day, now in 3 days C can do:
3 * 1/24 = 1/8.
Now 1/8 * 3200 gives us the answer.
So, 1/8 * 3200 = 400.
A = 6days
B = 8days
C = ?
A + B + C = 3200rupees.
Now we need to find how many days would C take to complete his work.
1/6 + 1/8+ C = 1/3.
C = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8).
1/3 - (7/24).
1/24.
So, here we found that C can do 1/24 work in one day, now in 3 days C can do:
3 * 1/24 = 1/8.
Now 1/8 * 3200 gives us the answer.
So, 1/8 * 3200 = 400.
Ashish said:
10 years ago
We can also use the lcm method.
K appala naidu said:
10 years ago
A's one day work = 1/6
B's one day work= 1/8
C's one day work = 1/x
A + B + C one day work = 1/3.
1/6 + 1/8 + 1/x = 1/3.
C's one day work is 1/24.
The ratio of A : B : C is 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4 : 3 : 1.
For 8 parts 3200 for C's 1 part 3200/8 = 400. So, the answer is 400.
B's one day work= 1/8
C's one day work = 1/x
A + B + C one day work = 1/3.
1/6 + 1/8 + 1/x = 1/3.
C's one day work is 1/24.
The ratio of A : B : C is 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4 : 3 : 1.
For 8 parts 3200 for C's 1 part 3200/8 = 400. So, the answer is 400.
Ahamika said:
10 years ago
I still can't understand the solution. Is there any shortcut to find the solution?
Malli said:
10 years ago
How 1/6, 1/8, 1/24 converted into 4 : 3 : 1?
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