Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

A's work = 1/6.

B's work = 1/8.

A+B+C = 1/3 per day.

C = (A+B+C) - (A+B).

= (1/3) - ((1/6)+(1/8)).

= 1/24.

So A:B:C = 1/6:1/8:1/24.

LCM = 24.

Ratio = 4:3:1.

T.P = (4+3+1) = 8.

8 parts--------------------->3200.

Then C's 1 part---------------------->?

-->8*x = 3200*1.

x = 3200/8.

C money = 400.

I didn't understand the step.

How they multiplied wage of C with 3?

There's no need of multiplying the number with 3. We can do it in other way as well.

As @Sai vinay said, we can consider that part.

Thanks a lot Sapna. You have cleared my confusion about 7/24.

C's 1 day work = 1/3-{1/6+1/8} = 1/24.

A:B:C = 1/6*24:1/8*24:1/24*24.

= 4:3:1.

C share = Rs. [Day he worked*Part of work he did*Total share].

= Rs. {3*1/24*3200}.

From given:

A+B+C can complete a work in 3 days and they will get amount 3200 for 3 days.

So A, B, C work for 3 days.

A one day work is 1/6.

B one day work is 1/8.

C one day work is, we have to find out.

A+B+C one day work is 1/3 because A, B, C complete a work in 3 days.

So A+B+C one day work = 1/6+1/8+1/C.

1/3 = 1/6+1/8+1/C.

1/C = 1/24 so "C" one day work is 1/24.

A's 3 days work is 3/6 and he will get the amount is 3/6*3200 = 1600.

B's 3 day work is 3/8 and he will get 3/8*3200 = 1200.

C's 3 day work is 3/24 and he will get 3/24*3200 = 400.

The last portion can also be explained as:

Since the ratio of the wages of A:B:C came as 4:3:1 respectively, it's obvious that the proportion of C is 1/8 i.e. 1/4+3+1 = 1/8.

Since the total amount is Rs. 3200, the portion or the amount received by C is 1/8 X 3200 = 400.

Similarly portions of other members are: A's 4/8 X 3200 = 1600.

B's 3/8 X 3200 = 1200.

If 3200 is taken for the complete the entire job, why did we multiply C's share i.e. 1/24 by 3?

Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income.

For what purpose we need to find ratio of wages for this question?

Why we required for ratio of wages in this question?