Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 9 of 22.
ALISA said:
2 years ago
It's simple,
SP = 6,
Gain = 20%,
CP = x,
Gain % = SP - CP/CP * 100,
20 = 6-x/x * 100,
20x = (6-x) * 100,
20x = 600 - 100x,
120x = 600.
x = 600/120
x = 5.
SP = 6,
Gain = 20%,
CP = x,
Gain % = SP - CP/CP * 100,
20 = 6-x/x * 100,
20x = (6-x) * 100,
20x = 600 - 100x,
120x = 600.
x = 600/120
x = 5.
(96)
Mounika love said:
9 years ago
Can anyone solve the same model in case if lose percentage is given example: 20% loss if sell at some percentage and how many should he sell to gain 20%.
Chetan said:
1 decade ago
6 toffees---> 1 re
given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 1.2 re
Now consider only S.P
1.2 re--> 6 toffee
1 re ---> ? toffee
6/1.2 =5
given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 1.2 re
Now consider only S.P
1.2 re--> 6 toffee
1 re ---> ? toffee
6/1.2 =5
Kyasa Akhila said:
5 years ago
Another method also there by using the formula
CP = 1/6Rs,
Sp = (100+profit)% * CP,
Sp =(100+20)% * 1/6,
Sp = 120% * 1/6,
Sp = 120/100 * 1/6,
Sp = 5Rs.
CP = 1/6Rs,
Sp = (100+profit)% * CP,
Sp =(100+20)% * 1/6,
Sp = 120% * 1/6,
Sp = 120/100 * 1/6,
Sp = 5Rs.
(1)
Neha said:
1 decade ago
This is very simple solution.
((6-x)/x)*100=20 then x=5.
For articles we have to take selling articles(x) as base for profit percentage.
((6-x)/x)*100=20 then x=5.
For articles we have to take selling articles(x) as base for profit percentage.
Kiran said:
6 years ago
6T= 100p.
1T= 100/6paisas.
To gain 20% profit on it;
100/6* 120/100=20paisa.
So1T=20 paisa.
Ans in 100 paisa he must give 5 toffee (20*5=100 paisa).
1T= 100/6paisas.
To gain 20% profit on it;
100/6* 120/100=20paisa.
So1T=20 paisa.
Ans in 100 paisa he must give 5 toffee (20*5=100 paisa).
Vaibhav said:
3 years ago
1 rs ----> 6 toffe.
20 % profit i.e 5:6.
so 5------> 5x6= 30.
6------> 6x6 = 36.
The profit from 30 to 36 is of 6.
So, the ans is 6.
20 % profit i.e 5:6.
so 5------> 5x6= 30.
6------> 6x6 = 36.
The profit from 30 to 36 is of 6.
So, the ans is 6.
(3)
Mummed Afees said:
9 years ago
SP 6 toffee = 1.2 Rs(1 + 20% = 1.2).
Hence, SP of 1 Toffee = 1.2/6 = .2 Rs.
How many toffee need to be sold to get 1 rupee = .2 * 5 toffee = 1.
Hence, SP of 1 Toffee = 1.2/6 = .2 Rs.
How many toffee need to be sold to get 1 rupee = .2 * 5 toffee = 1.
Shailesh said:
9 years ago
100 paise/6 = 16.666
Now 1/5(20%) of 16.66 = 3.333 as he needs 20% profit.
So, add 16.66 + 3.44 = 20.
Now he must sell 100/5 i.e 5 for Rs 1.
Now 1/5(20%) of 16.66 = 3.333 as he needs 20% profit.
So, add 16.66 + 3.44 = 20.
Now he must sell 100/5 i.e 5 for Rs 1.
Thippesh said:
1 decade ago
Take 1 Rupee=100% so Rq gain = 20 therefore gain =100/20= 5 so. Do like this many problems and ex: if 15 Rs then multiply into 100 1500/20.
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