Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 10 of 22.
Soumya Ranjan Nayak said:
8 years ago
1rs = 100 paisa
Sp of 1 toffee is 100/6.
New Sp of 1 toffe=120/6=20paisa ( as 20%profit),
In 100 paisa there will be 100÷20= 5 toffees.
Sp of 1 toffee is 100/6.
New Sp of 1 toffe=120/6=20paisa ( as 20%profit),
In 100 paisa there will be 100÷20= 5 toffees.
Vishnu prakash said:
4 years ago
100 paisa = 6 toffee -----> 1
120 paisa = X toffee -----> 2.
So the equation 1&2 equal.
Then, 100 * 6 = 120 * X.
X = 600/120.
X = 5.
120 paisa = X toffee -----> 2.
So the equation 1&2 equal.
Then, 100 * 6 = 120 * X.
X = 600/120.
X = 5.
(1)
Mahesh said:
7 years ago
Assume for 100 rs he needs 120 including profit. So
100 rs 600 toffees.
Check-in option with which when dividing 120 comes 600/5 = 120.
100 rs 600 toffees.
Check-in option with which when dividing 120 comes 600/5 = 120.
Sushil said:
2 months ago
For 1 rupees to paisa.
Rs 1 = 100 paisa.
100 paisa= 6 toffees,
For 20% profit ie. 120 paisa,
120 = 6,
For 100 = ?
And=(100 * 6)/120 = 5.
Rs 1 = 100 paisa.
100 paisa= 6 toffees,
For 20% profit ie. 120 paisa,
120 = 6,
For 100 = ?
And=(100 * 6)/120 = 5.
(10)
Mukesh said:
1 decade ago
DOUBT:
How do you people say "S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of 1".
When the given question is S.P of X toffees = 120% of 1".
How do you people say "S.P of 6 toffees = 120% of 1".
When the given question is S.P of X toffees = 120% of 1".
Nikhil said:
1 decade ago
A person sold 12 chocolates for a rupee and made a loss of 25%. Find how many chocolates should he sell for a rupee to make 50% profit?
Naresh said:
1 decade ago
What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
Keerthana said:
9 years ago
C.P = 6rs
S.P = ?
S.P for gain = (100 + gain%)/(100 * c.p)
= (100 + 20%)/(100 * 6),
= 120/600,
= 1/5,
= 0.5.
We can take it as 5rs.
S.P = ?
S.P for gain = (100 + gain%)/(100 * c.p)
= (100 + 20%)/(100 * 6),
= 120/600,
= 1/5,
= 0.5.
We can take it as 5rs.
Ameer said:
6 years ago
By using this formula one can easily findout the solution.
s.p = {(100+gain%)/100} * c.p,
1/X = {(100+20%)/100} * 1/6,
Hence X = 5.
s.p = {(100+gain%)/100} * c.p,
1/X = {(100+20%)/100} * 1/6,
Hence X = 5.
Bhupal said:
3 years ago
@All.
sp=6
Gain=20%
Cp= x
Gain %= SP- CP/CP*100.
20 = 6- X/x*100.
20X=(6-x)*100,
20X= 600-100x,
120 X=600,
X= 600/120,
X= 5 ans.
sp=6
Gain=20%
Cp= x
Gain %= SP- CP/CP*100.
20 = 6- X/x*100.
20X=(6-x)*100,
20X= 600-100x,
120 X=600,
X= 600/120,
X= 5 ans.
(28)
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