Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 5 of 22.
Prabhath said:
1 decade ago
A man bought 6 toffees for 1 rs...
sold it for 20% profit...so he sold it for 1.2 rs...
so to get 1 rs back he must sell 5 toffees...simple as that..
ie 6 toffees cost 1.2 so 1 toffee cost 1.2/6=.2
0.2*5=1...
So answer is 5.
sold it for 20% profit...so he sold it for 1.2 rs...
so to get 1 rs back he must sell 5 toffees...simple as that..
ie 6 toffees cost 1.2 so 1 toffee cost 1.2/6=.2
0.2*5=1...
So answer is 5.
Nischal said:
1 decade ago
6 chocolate for = 1 rupee.
1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.
//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.
1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.
So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.
1 chocolate for = 1/6 rupee.
//After 20 % increment in chocolate price.
1 chocolate for =1/6+(1/6*20/100)= 1/6+1/30 = 1/5.
So,
1/5 rupee for = 1 chocolate.
1 rupee for = 1/(1/5) = 5.
M.venkateswara reddy said:
2 decades ago
Let C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
Re.1 is assume 100%
we know the profit=20%
Selling Price (SP) = profit+ C.P.
= 120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
Therefore Selling Price of 6 toffees = 6/5.
Re.1 is assume 100%
we know the profit=20%
Selling Price (SP) = profit+ C.P.
= 120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
Therefore Selling Price of 6 toffees = 6/5.
Saugat said:
1 decade ago
6 toffes cost=Rs 1=100 paisa
profit t0 be made =20% Of 100
in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa
so,60 paisa =3 toffe
1 paisa=3/60
100 paisa=(3/60)*100
=5 toffes.
profit t0 be made =20% Of 100
in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa
so,60 paisa =3 toffe
1 paisa=3/60
100 paisa=(3/60)*100
=5 toffes.
Aritra Charkaborty said:
4 years ago
The cost price of 6 toffee = Rs 1.
Selling price of 6 toffee = (gain + 100) * cost price / 100 = (20 + 100) * 1 / 100 = 120/100 = 6/5.
In 6/5 Rs he can sell 6 toffee,
In 1 Rs he can sell = 6 * 5/6 = 5 toffee.
Selling price of 6 toffee = (gain + 100) * cost price / 100 = (20 + 100) * 1 / 100 = 120/100 = 6/5.
In 6/5 Rs he can sell 6 toffee,
In 1 Rs he can sell = 6 * 5/6 = 5 toffee.
Preeti said:
1 decade ago
See..
C.P of 6 toffees = Rs 1,
Profit=20%,
S.P = (1+P%)*C.P.
= (1+20/100)*1 = (120/100)*1 =1.2*1 1.2.
If Rs 1.2 is the S.P of the toffee = 6.
So, Rs 1 is the S.P of the toffee = 6/1.2 = 60/12 = 5 answer.
C.P of 6 toffees = Rs 1,
Profit=20%,
S.P = (1+P%)*C.P.
= (1+20/100)*1 = (120/100)*1 =1.2*1 1.2.
If Rs 1.2 is the S.P of the toffee = 6.
So, Rs 1 is the S.P of the toffee = 6/1.2 = 60/12 = 5 answer.
Morissonjm said:
9 years ago
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
100 % = 1 Rs.
20 % of 1 Rs is = 0.2.
To make 1 Rs(C.P.) he has to sell = 0.2 * 5 = 1. Rs.
We have a gain of 1 Toffee means 20% gain on original cost Price after selling 5 toffees.
100 % = 1 Rs.
20 % of 1 Rs is = 0.2.
To make 1 Rs(C.P.) he has to sell = 0.2 * 5 = 1. Rs.
We have a gain of 1 Toffee means 20% gain on original cost Price after selling 5 toffees.
Chethu said:
1 decade ago
We can also convert Re.1=100paise
therefore each toffee is 100/6=16.67p
we need 20% gain on each toffee.
so the SP should be 120%.
(120/100)*16.67 is 20p
20p*5=100paise=Re.1
so 5 toffees should be sold.
therefore each toffee is 100/6=16.67p
we need 20% gain on each toffee.
so the SP should be 120%.
(120/100)*16.67 is 20p
20p*5=100paise=Re.1
so 5 toffees should be sold.
Sachin said:
1 decade ago
Let's assume vendor bought 60 tofees.
So he spent Rs.10 (1/6*60).
Now he want 20% profit on Rs.10 i.e Rs.12.
So now he must sell that 60 tofees for Rs.12
So for 1 rupee 5 (60/12) tofees has to sell.
So he spent Rs.10 (1/6*60).
Now he want 20% profit on Rs.10 i.e Rs.12.
So now he must sell that 60 tofees for Rs.12
So for 1 rupee 5 (60/12) tofees has to sell.
Naveen said:
4 years ago
It's a logical thing;
6 toffees =rs. 1
The seller needs 20 percent of the profit
So, each candy has 20percent therefore 6 * 20 = 120,
Then remove one of the 20percent as a gain.
Therefore, 6-1 =5.
6 toffees =rs. 1
The seller needs 20 percent of the profit
So, each candy has 20percent therefore 6 * 20 = 120,
Then remove one of the 20percent as a gain.
Therefore, 6-1 =5.
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