Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
3
4
5
6
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1

S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. 6
5

For Rs. 6 , toffees sold = 6.
5

For Re. 1, toffees sold = 6 x 5 = 5.
6

Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8

Discussion:
211 comments Page 3 of 22.

Vishal said:   9 years ago
Think logically for these sums.

You have 6 toffees for 1 Re.

Assume if he sells 3 toffees for 1 re his gain is 50%.

In this question, he needs 20% gain.

If he sells 5 toffies his gain will be 20%.

(if you still have doubt how he got 20% for 5 toffies).

Assume 6 toffies for 1 re=120% (this is total).

The Same manner see.

If he sells 1 toffee for 1 re his gains is 100%.

2 toffee for 1 re = 80%.
3toffee for 1 re = 60%.
4toffee for 1 re = 40%.
5toffee for 1re = 20%.

The more he sells for same amount gain reduce, the lesser no of toffees he sells for 1 re the gain increase.
(3)

Vaibhav said:   3 years ago
1 rs ----> 6 toffe.
20 % profit i.e 5:6.
so 5------> 5x6= 30.
6------> 6x6 = 36.

The profit from 30 to 36 is of 6.
So, the ans is 6.
(3)

Sandu said:   1 decade ago
If a man gains 5% by selling nibs at the rate of 34 a rupee, how many rupee must he sell them. So as to gain 19%.
(2)

Nikunj Sahni said:   8 years ago
I have most simple solution, I hope you'll love it.

If you've selling some toffees at 1 Rs and You're getting 20% profit so you must have purchased those toffees at amount < 1. Let You've purchased those toffees for X Rs

That why for profit % , we will write equation.

(SP - CP) / CP * 100 = Profit%.
(1-X)/X*100 = 20.
(1-X)/X = 20/100 --> 100 - 100X = 20X ---> 120X = 100 ---> X =100/120 = 5/6 Rs
It means that you've purchased some toffees for 6/5 Rs and you're selling same toffees for 1 Rs and you're getting 20% Profit.

So last step would be finding toffees we brought at 6/5 Rs that would be the final solution.

In 1 Rs we brought --- 6 Toffees.
So in 5/6 Rs we brought -- 6*(5/6) Toffees or 5 Toffees.

So Ans = 5 Toffees.
(2)

Shukla ji said:   4 years ago
@All.

Why all of you finding selling price of 6 toffees?

In this question, it tells that the cp of 6 toffee is 1. Then what was the need for that? Please explain me clearly.
(2)

Aparna Dileep said:   4 years ago
CP of 1 toffee = 1/6 Profit % = 20 Profit% = SP- 1/6 / 1/6 * 100.

[Profit % = (SP- CP/CP ) * 100 ] Which gives SP = 1/5 Therefore 5 toffees are sold for Re 1 for getting 20% profit.
(2)

Bishal Rawat said:   3 years ago
Very nice explaination.
(2)

Spartan007 said:   6 years ago
Take;
120 % is 6
100% is ?

120 * x =6 * 100,
x= (6*100) /120;
x = 5.
(1)

Sajjad Hossain said:   6 years ago
CP is 1 Rs for 6 toffee.
for 20% profit, sp should be 1.2 Rs.
SP is 1.2 Rs for 6 toffees.
SP is 1 Rs for (6/1.2) = 5 toffees.
(1)

Kyasa Akhila said:   5 years ago
Another method also there by using the formula
CP = 1/6Rs,
Sp = (100+profit)% * CP,
Sp =(100+20)% * 1/6,
Sp = 120% * 1/6,
Sp = 120/100 * 1/6,
Sp = 5Rs.
(1)


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