Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
3
4
5
6
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1

S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. 6
5

For Rs. 6 , toffees sold = 6.
5

For Re. 1, toffees sold = 6 x 5 = 5.
6

Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8

Discussion:
211 comments Page 17 of 22.

K.Muni Teja said:   9 years ago
Hey Guys, it's simple I will explain in easy method.
First of all given one is,
6 toffees is Rs.1.

Now first find cost of 1toffee.
i.e) 1 ÷ 6 = 0.1666666666.

Next, From above problem given one is we have to sell toffees for Rs.1 to gain 20%.
i.e (0.1666666666÷20) * 100 = 0.83333333.

Here, 0.83333333 is cost of one toffee with 20% gain.

Then multiply the cost of toffees of 20%.
i.e 0.83333333 * no.of toffees i.e 6 = 4.99999998 = 5.

Ashish kumar said:   9 years ago
C.P. of 6 tofees = 120% of S.P.
6 = 120/100 * S.P.
S.P = 5.

Rajiv Hussain said:   9 years ago
I have a question, can anyone solve this question for me?

A man buys an egg at 2 for Rs 1 and an equal number at 3 for rs 2 and sells the whole at 5 for rs 3. What is gain or loss?

Prasanth said:   9 years ago
Can you please anyone clear my doubt? How 120% comes?

Why they take 120%?

Khadarbaba said:   9 years ago
@Prasanth.

In problem, profit is 20%.
For 1 Re. he bought 6 toffees
And he need to gain 20% profit.
Profit is always calculated on cost price.
20% of 1Re. is 0.2
So, he need to sell those toffees at 1.2 Re. to get 20% profit.
But, he asked how many he need to sell for 1 Re.,

For 1.2 Re., he sells 6 toffees; so, For 1 Re. he sells = (6*10)/12=5 [cross multiplication]

I hope you will understood now.

Deepakjain said:   8 years ago
Easy way.

Let 6 toffe taken = 100 paise.
20% gain so 120 paise for 6(means 1 toffe given in 20 paise).
Then in 100 paise only 5 toffe will be given(20 * 5).

Vaishnavi said:   8 years ago
For 1rs = 6toffee is cp, and 1rs = 5toffee is sp. Then how it will be profit?

Kapil said:   8 years ago
@Sundar.

Nice explanation. Thank you.

Soumya Ranjan Nayak said:   8 years ago
1rs = 100 paisa
Sp of 1 toffee is 100/6.
New Sp of 1 toffe=120/6=20paisa ( as 20%profit),
In 100 paisa there will be 100÷20= 5 toffees.

Jai said:   8 years ago
@Vaisnavi

You've brought 6 toffees in 1 Rs and only sold 5 Toffees in 1 Rs. So you've recovered your 1 Rs and still 1 toffee in your hand. Let you will sell this 6th toffee for X Rs.

So CP for 6 Toffees = 1 Rs.
SP for 6 Toffee = 1+X Rs.

So clearly it will be profit case.


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