Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
213 comments Page 17 of 22.
S. k. dwivedi said:
9 years ago
Let the total toffees are 2x in which x toffees are Bought at 6 for a rupees and x toffees are bought 4 for a rupees.
Then total rupees will be x/6+x/4 = 5x/12.
Now total toffees are baughtat5for a rupees then total money = 2x/5.
It's loss= 5x/12-2x/5 = x/60.loss% = x/60/5x/12*100 = 4%.
Then total rupees will be x/6+x/4 = 5x/12.
Now total toffees are baughtat5for a rupees then total money = 2x/5.
It's loss= 5x/12-2x/5 = x/60.loss% = x/60/5x/12*100 = 4%.
Sana said:
9 years ago
Apple are bought at the rate of 12 for Rs. 10 and sold at the rate of 10 for Rs. 12. The profit is?
Please solve it.
Please solve it.
K.Muni Teja said:
9 years ago
Hey Guys, it's simple I will explain in easy method.
First of all given one is,
6 toffees is Rs.1.
Now first find cost of 1toffee.
i.e) 1 ÷ 6 = 0.1666666666.
Next, From above problem given one is we have to sell toffees for Rs.1 to gain 20%.
i.e (0.1666666666÷20) * 100 = 0.83333333.
Here, 0.83333333 is cost of one toffee with 20% gain.
Then multiply the cost of toffees of 20%.
i.e 0.83333333 * no.of toffees i.e 6 = 4.99999998 = 5.
First of all given one is,
6 toffees is Rs.1.
Now first find cost of 1toffee.
i.e) 1 ÷ 6 = 0.1666666666.
Next, From above problem given one is we have to sell toffees for Rs.1 to gain 20%.
i.e (0.1666666666÷20) * 100 = 0.83333333.
Here, 0.83333333 is cost of one toffee with 20% gain.
Then multiply the cost of toffees of 20%.
i.e 0.83333333 * no.of toffees i.e 6 = 4.99999998 = 5.
Ashish kumar said:
9 years ago
C.P. of 6 tofees = 120% of S.P.
6 = 120/100 * S.P.
S.P = 5.
6 = 120/100 * S.P.
S.P = 5.
Rajiv Hussain said:
9 years ago
I have a question, can anyone solve this question for me?
A man buys an egg at 2 for Rs 1 and an equal number at 3 for rs 2 and sells the whole at 5 for rs 3. What is gain or loss?
A man buys an egg at 2 for Rs 1 and an equal number at 3 for rs 2 and sells the whole at 5 for rs 3. What is gain or loss?
Prasanth said:
9 years ago
Can you please anyone clear my doubt? How 120% comes?
Why they take 120%?
Why they take 120%?
Khadarbaba said:
9 years ago
@Prasanth.
In problem, profit is 20%.
For 1 Re. he bought 6 toffees
And he need to gain 20% profit.
Profit is always calculated on cost price.
20% of 1Re. is 0.2
So, he need to sell those toffees at 1.2 Re. to get 20% profit.
But, he asked how many he need to sell for 1 Re.,
For 1.2 Re., he sells 6 toffees; so, For 1 Re. he sells = (6*10)/12=5 [cross multiplication]
I hope you will understood now.
In problem, profit is 20%.
For 1 Re. he bought 6 toffees
And he need to gain 20% profit.
Profit is always calculated on cost price.
20% of 1Re. is 0.2
So, he need to sell those toffees at 1.2 Re. to get 20% profit.
But, he asked how many he need to sell for 1 Re.,
For 1.2 Re., he sells 6 toffees; so, For 1 Re. he sells = (6*10)/12=5 [cross multiplication]
I hope you will understood now.
Deepakjain said:
9 years ago
Easy way.
Let 6 toffe taken = 100 paise.
20% gain so 120 paise for 6(means 1 toffe given in 20 paise).
Then in 100 paise only 5 toffe will be given(20 * 5).
Let 6 toffe taken = 100 paise.
20% gain so 120 paise for 6(means 1 toffe given in 20 paise).
Then in 100 paise only 5 toffe will be given(20 * 5).
Vaishnavi said:
9 years ago
For 1rs = 6toffee is cp, and 1rs = 5toffee is sp. Then how it will be profit?
Kapil said:
9 years ago
@Sundar.
Nice explanation. Thank you.
Nice explanation. Thank you.
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