Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. of each article be Re. 1 C.P. of x articles = Rs. x.
S.P. of x articles = Rs. 20.
Profit = Rs. (20 - x).
 |
 |
20 - x | x 100 = 25 |  |
| x |
2000 - 100x = 25x
125x = 2000
x = 16.
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/sidqvjUoZxY
Discussion:
353 comments Page 28 of 36.
Lawrencia said:
7 years ago
I have not understand this. Please explain in detail.
Captain said:
7 years ago
Simple alternative.
x * 125/100 = 20,
125x = 2000,
125x/125 =2000/125,
x = 16.
x * 125/100 = 20,
125x = 2000,
125x/125 =2000/125,
x = 16.
Sravani said:
7 years ago
CP * 20 articles = SP * x --> (1).
By formula, SP = (100 + profit %) * CP.
=> 125/100 * CP.
substitute in (1),
CP * 20 = 125/100 * CP * x.
x = 2000/125.
x = 16.
By formula, SP = (100 + profit %) * CP.
=> 125/100 * CP.
substitute in (1),
CP * 20 = 125/100 * CP * x.
x = 2000/125.
x = 16.
Ali said:
7 years ago
The question says the purchase price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x.
Let's say that 20 articles cost me 100. This means selling price of x to be 100.
We are unaware of the purchase price of x. But the profit is given i.e. 25%.
Now given the options, when I tried the last option (D = 25). I got profit to be 25%.
Let's say that 20 articles cost me 100. This means selling price of x to be 100.
We are unaware of the purchase price of x. But the profit is given i.e. 25%.
Now given the options, when I tried the last option (D = 25). I got profit to be 25%.
Swati Pandey said:
7 years ago
Let the CP of 1 article = 100.
By formula, SP = (100 + profit %) * CP.
125/100 * 100 = 125.
CP of 20 articles = 2000.
CP of 20 articles= SP of x articles.
2000= 125 *x.
Therefore, X = 16.
By formula, SP = (100 + profit %) * CP.
125/100 * 100 = 125.
CP of 20 articles = 2000.
CP of 20 articles= SP of x articles.
2000= 125 *x.
Therefore, X = 16.
Anonymous said:
7 years ago
Hi guys, let me try it in a simpler way.
Let C.P of an article be 'y'.
Hence C.P of 20 articles ==> 20y.
But given that 20y = S.P of x articles.
and C.P of x articles is y*x.
Now the profit percentage is:
((S.P of x articles - C.P of x articles)) / C.P of x articles) * 100.
(20y - xy)/(xy) * 100 = 25 (as given profit is 25%)
y cancels out, so we simplify to get x = 16.
Let C.P of an article be 'y'.
Hence C.P of 20 articles ==> 20y.
But given that 20y = S.P of x articles.
and C.P of x articles is y*x.
Now the profit percentage is:
((S.P of x articles - C.P of x articles)) / C.P of x articles) * 100.
(20y - xy)/(xy) * 100 = 25 (as given profit is 25%)
y cancels out, so we simplify to get x = 16.
Akki said:
7 years ago
Good explanation Thanks @Chetan.
Imran said:
7 years ago
As per my calculation, the solution is;
Let the cost of 20 articles is y Rs then the sp of x articles is y Rs.
cp of 1 article =y/20.
sp of 1 article = y/x.
so profit= (y/x)-(y/20).
so [{(y/x)-(y/20)}/y]*100=25,
by sovling the value oy x =3.8095.
Let the cost of 20 articles is y Rs then the sp of x articles is y Rs.
cp of 1 article =y/20.
sp of 1 article = y/x.
so profit= (y/x)-(y/20).
so [{(y/x)-(y/20)}/y]*100=25,
by sovling the value oy x =3.8095.
Libia said:
7 years ago
Thanks for making an easy solution @Pinaki Chatterjee.
Chandra Mouli said:
7 years ago
Why we have to assume and take Rs 1 here?
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