Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
85 : 18700 = 115 : x
 x = |
 |
18700 x 115 |  |
= 25300. |
| 85 |
Hence, S.P. = Rs. 25,300.
Discussion:
83 comments Page 7 of 9.
Aakash said:
6 years ago
C.p = 100/85*18700 = 22000.
S.p = 100+15/100*22000 = 25300.
S.p = 100+15/100*22000 = 25300.
(1)
Yasvanth said:
6 years ago
SP=18700 ,
15%loss=85%
SP=? gain of 15%=115% (cross multiplication)
That means (18700/115)*85 = 25300.
15%loss=85%
SP=? gain of 15%=115% (cross multiplication)
That means (18700/115)*85 = 25300.
(1)
Raghavendra said:
6 years ago
S.P is 18700 with 0.15 %loss,
So c.p-sp=loss c.p=sp+loss.
c.p=18700+18700*0.15 = 21505,
SP = CP * 115/100 = 25300.
So c.p-sp=loss c.p=sp+loss.
c.p=18700+18700*0.15 = 21505,
SP = CP * 115/100 = 25300.
Md Noorul Islam said:
6 years ago
Here,
Given, old S.P.=18700.
Loss=15%.
Let C.P = x;
(x-18700)/x = 15/100.
100x - 1870000 = 15x.
x = 1870000/85 = 22000 this is C.P.
Now, 22000 of 15% needed to profit.
22000*15/100 = 3300.
S.P = x+profit =22000+3300 =25300 Ans.
Given, old S.P.=18700.
Loss=15%.
Let C.P = x;
(x-18700)/x = 15/100.
100x - 1870000 = 15x.
x = 1870000/85 = 22000 this is C.P.
Now, 22000 of 15% needed to profit.
22000*15/100 = 3300.
S.P = x+profit =22000+3300 =25300 Ans.
(1)
Srijit Chakrabarty said:
6 years ago
USE THIS FORMULA.
S1/(100-LOSS%) = S2/(100+GAIN%).
S denotes the selling price.
So,here,
18700/(100-15) = S2(100+15).
S2 = (18700*115)/85,
S2 = 25300.
S1/(100-LOSS%) = S2/(100+GAIN%).
S denotes the selling price.
So,here,
18700/(100-15) = S2(100+15).
S2 = (18700*115)/85,
S2 = 25300.
(2)
Atul verma said:
6 years ago
sp = cp*mf.
Here sp = 18700 and mf(multiplying factor) if loss is 15% = 1-0.15 = 0.85.
Hence cp = sp/mf.
cp = 18700/0.85 = 22000.
Again if he wants gain of 15% then sp will be sp = cp*mf.
mf here in case of gain will be 1+0.15 = 1.15.
hence sp will be = cp*1.15.
CP, as calculated, is 22000.
SP = 22000*1.15 = 25300.
Here sp = 18700 and mf(multiplying factor) if loss is 15% = 1-0.15 = 0.85.
Hence cp = sp/mf.
cp = 18700/0.85 = 22000.
Again if he wants gain of 15% then sp will be sp = cp*mf.
mf here in case of gain will be 1+0.15 = 1.15.
hence sp will be = cp*1.15.
CP, as calculated, is 22000.
SP = 22000*1.15 = 25300.
(1)
Indu said:
5 years ago
Why are we considering 15% as 115? Please explain.
Swathi n s said:
5 years ago
In ratio method.
15 percent =3/20.
Hence, sp:cp.
15 percent loss 20:17
15 percent gain 23:20.
By cancellin common term sp:cp =23:17.
Then 17x =18700 therefore x=1100.
23x = 25300.
15 percent =3/20.
Hence, sp:cp.
15 percent loss 20:17
15 percent gain 23:20.
By cancellin common term sp:cp =23:17.
Then 17x =18700 therefore x=1100.
23x = 25300.
Aarya said:
5 years ago
Given selling price(sp)=18700 (with loss of 15%)
So basically,
sp = cp(cost price) - 15% cp.
Let cp be x.
18700=x-0.15x.
18700=0.85x.
So we get x=cp=22000.
Now if he needs a gain of 15%,
SP=22000+15%(22000),
SP=25300.
So basically,
sp = cp(cost price) - 15% cp.
Let cp be x.
18700=x-0.15x.
18700=0.85x.
So we get x=cp=22000.
Now if he needs a gain of 15%,
SP=22000+15%(22000),
SP=25300.
Neeraja said:
5 years ago
Thanks @Sunil.
(1)
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