Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
85 : 18700 = 115 : x
 x = |
 |
18700 x 115 |  |
= 25300. |
| 85 |
Hence, S.P. = Rs. 25,300.
Discussion:
85 comments Page 3 of 9.
Atul verma said:
7 years ago
sp = cp*mf.
Here sp = 18700 and mf(multiplying factor) if loss is 15% = 1-0.15 = 0.85.
Hence cp = sp/mf.
cp = 18700/0.85 = 22000.
Again if he wants gain of 15% then sp will be sp = cp*mf.
mf here in case of gain will be 1+0.15 = 1.15.
hence sp will be = cp*1.15.
CP, as calculated, is 22000.
SP = 22000*1.15 = 25300.
Here sp = 18700 and mf(multiplying factor) if loss is 15% = 1-0.15 = 0.85.
Hence cp = sp/mf.
cp = 18700/0.85 = 22000.
Again if he wants gain of 15% then sp will be sp = cp*mf.
mf here in case of gain will be 1+0.15 = 1.15.
hence sp will be = cp*1.15.
CP, as calculated, is 22000.
SP = 22000*1.15 = 25300.
(1)
Nikhitha said:
8 years ago
SP = 18700.
Loss%=15.
CP=(sp/100-loss)*100.
From the above formula, we get cp=22000.
Given gain%=15.
sp=(100+gain%) * cp/100.
We get sp = 25300.
Loss%=15.
CP=(sp/100-loss)*100.
From the above formula, we get cp=22000.
Given gain%=15.
sp=(100+gain%) * cp/100.
We get sp = 25300.
(1)
Neeraja said:
6 years ago
Thanks @Sunil.
(1)
J.sabarish said:
5 years ago
Agree @M. V. Krishna/Palvancha :
That is cp=21505. But after getting it, if you check for sp (rs. 18700) with it, we can't get the answer (rs. 18700).
Sp=85% of 21505=18, 280 (which proves that it is wrong).
Anyone clear this.
That is cp=21505. But after getting it, if you check for sp (rs. 18700) with it, we can't get the answer (rs. 18700).
Sp=85% of 21505=18, 280 (which proves that it is wrong).
Anyone clear this.
(1)
Shafiq said:
2 decades ago
When you are calculating 1percent of 18700, you have divided 18700 with 85. But 85 is 85%. Please explain it.
(1)
Snehal said:
2 decades ago
How you hav done 85:18700=115:? please tell me.
(1)
Ayush singh said:
2 weeks ago
Let the cp be x.
x - 15% of x = 18700
x-((15/100) * x) = 18700.
x = 22000.
22000 + ((15/100) * x) = 25300.
x - 15% of x = 18700
x-((15/100) * x) = 18700.
x = 22000.
22000 + ((15/100) * x) = 25300.
(1)
Badu said:
9 years ago
How to solve this? Please explain it to me.
Deepjit Das said:
9 years ago
(CP-SP)/CP=profit = 15/100,
=>(CP-18700)/cp=15/100.
=>CP=22000.
Now,
15%of CP=22000*1(15/100) = 3300,
So the price will be,
22000+3300 = 25300.
=>(CP-18700)/cp=15/100.
=>CP=22000.
Now,
15%of CP=22000*1(15/100) = 3300,
So the price will be,
22000+3300 = 25300.
Jegan said:
9 years ago
Easy by knowing the formula.
s.p formula s.p=100-loss/100*c.p
so, 18700=85/100*c.p
1870000=85*c.p
1870000/85=c.p
22000=c.p
Then keep s.p ,as a x for gain 15% & gain=x-22000(s.p-c.p).
by formula gain % = 100 * gain/c.p.
So, 15=100/c.p*(x-22000)
15*220=x-22000
3300=x-22000
22000+3300=x.
ANS: 25300.
s.p formula s.p=100-loss/100*c.p
so, 18700=85/100*c.p
1870000=85*c.p
1870000/85=c.p
22000=c.p
Then keep s.p ,as a x for gain 15% & gain=x-22000(s.p-c.p).
by formula gain % = 100 * gain/c.p.
So, 15=100/c.p*(x-22000)
15*220=x-22000
3300=x-22000
22000+3300=x.
ANS: 25300.
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