Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?
Rs. 21,000
Rs. 22,500
Rs. 25,300
Rs. 25,800
Answer: Option
Explanation:

85 : 18700 = 115 : x

x = 18700 x 115 = 25300.
85

Hence, S.P. = Rs. 25,300.

Discussion:
83 comments Page 2 of 9.

Vikas said:   2 decades ago
I think the answer u mentioned here is wrong coz wen u calculate the amount 15% in 18,700 and add it then the result will be 21505.

But if v calculate as per ur ans 25300-18700=6600

so.. 6600/18700*100 the result will b 35.2%.
(2)

Aayush said:   1 decade ago
I hope this helps you out guys.

S.P=18700(Given).
Loss%=15%(given).
We need to find out S.P so that the gain % becomes 15%.

Gain% must be = 15%(as per question).
so S.P = 115% OF C.P(Formula-derived).

C.P=(100/100-LOSS%)* S.P(Formula).

Note: we could have taken this formula also C.P=(100/100+GAIN%)*S.P, but for gain, S.P is NOT GIVEN so we don't use this one.

C.P=(100/100-15)*18700.
C.P=(100/85)*18700.
C.P=22000.

For gain of 15%.
S.P must be= 115% of C.P (mentioned above).
S.P=115/100*22000.
S.P=25300.(ANSWER).
(2)

Srijit Chakrabarty said:   6 years ago
USE THIS FORMULA.

S1/(100-LOSS%) = S2/(100+GAIN%).

S denotes the selling price.
So,here,
18700/(100-15) = S2(100+15).
S2 = (18700*115)/85,
S2 = 25300.
(2)

Aanchal said:   5 years ago
SP = 18700,
Loss= 15% = 15/100 = 3/20,
It means you have to subtract for loss(20-3=17),
So the loss is of 3 = 17,
17 =18700,
1=18700/17 = 1100,
Profit =15% = (3/20).
It means you have to add for profit (3+20=23),
So gain is by 3=23.
SP= 23*1100 = 25,300.
(2)

RIZWAN said:   4 years ago
The calculation for (when an owner loses 15%)

S.P% x CP = SP
85/100 X CP=18700

CP= 22000 ( actual price before 15% loss)


The calculation for ( when an owner loses 15%)

PROFIT% X CP= PROFIT.
115/100 X 22000 = AMOUNT AFTER 15% PROFIT.

AMOUNT AFTER 15% PROFIT = 25300.
(2)

J.sabarish said:   5 years ago
Agree @M. V. Krishna/Palvancha :

That is cp=21505. But after getting it, if you check for sp (rs. 18700) with it, we can't get the answer (rs. 18700).

Sp=85% of 21505=18, 280 (which proves that it is wrong).

Anyone clear this.
(1)

Neeraja said:   5 years ago
Thanks @Sunil.
(1)

Nikhitha said:   7 years ago
SP = 18700.
Loss%=15.
CP=(sp/100-loss)*100.
From the above formula, we get cp=22000.
Given gain%=15.
sp=(100+gain%) * cp/100.
We get sp = 25300.
(1)

Atul verma said:   6 years ago
sp = cp*mf.

Here sp = 18700 and mf(multiplying factor) if loss is 15% = 1-0.15 = 0.85.

Hence cp = sp/mf.
cp = 18700/0.85 = 22000.

Again if he wants gain of 15% then sp will be sp = cp*mf.
mf here in case of gain will be 1+0.15 = 1.15.
hence sp will be = cp*1.15.
CP, as calculated, is 22000.
SP = 22000*1.15 = 25300.
(1)

Shafiq said:   1 decade ago
When you are calculating 1percent of 18700, you have divided 18700 with 85. But 85 is 85%. Please explain it.
(1)


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