Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 1)
1.
Alfred buys an old scooter for Rs. 4700 and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for Rs. 5800, his gain percent is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Cost Price (C.P.) = Rs. (4700 + 800) = Rs. 5500.
Selling Price (S.P.) = Rs. 5800.
Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.) = Rs.(5800 - 5500) = Rs. 300.
| Gain % = |  |
300 | x 100 |  % |
= 5 | 5 | % |
| 5500 | 11 |
Discussion:
145 comments Page 2 of 15.
SAGAR MHATRE said:
2 years ago
He bought scooter for Rs.5500/-
And sold it for 5800/- and got 300/-profit.
explanation:- 30000/5500 = 60/11 that is 5 5/11%.
And sold it for 5800/- and got 300/-profit.
explanation:- 30000/5500 = 60/11 that is 5 5/11%.
(25)
Ankush Kumar said:
2 years ago
CP = 4700
REPAIRS = 800
TOTAL = 5500
SP = 5800
PROFIT = 5800-5500
= 300.
GAIN PERCENT = 300/5500*100,
= 60/11,
So, the answer is = 5(5/11).
REPAIRS = 800
TOTAL = 5500
SP = 5800
PROFIT = 5800-5500
= 300.
GAIN PERCENT = 300/5500*100,
= 60/11,
So, the answer is = 5(5/11).
(12)
Sumit Kumar Giri said:
2 years ago
Given that,
CP = 4700 but spends the repairs scooter 800 so,
Total cp = 4700 + 800 = 5500,
Sp = 5800.
gain = Sp - Cp.
gain = 5800 - 5500=300,
gain% = gain × 100/Cp,
gain% = 300 × 100/5500 =60/11%.
gain% = 5.45%.
CP = 4700 but spends the repairs scooter 800 so,
Total cp = 4700 + 800 = 5500,
Sp = 5800.
gain = Sp - Cp.
gain = 5800 - 5500=300,
gain% = gain × 100/Cp,
gain% = 300 × 100/5500 =60/11%.
gain% = 5.45%.
(35)
Avleen kour said:
3 years ago
CP = (4700 + 800) = 5500
SP = 5800.
Gain = 5800-5500 = 300
Gain% = gain/CP*100.
= (300/5500 * 100).
= 60/11.
SP = 5800.
Gain = 5800-5500 = 300
Gain% = gain/CP*100.
= (300/5500 * 100).
= 60/11.
(34)
Chhayank Kumar Sahu said:
3 years ago
Profit= SP/CP
= 5800/(4700+800)
= 1.0545( it's profit because
Value of SP/CP = more.
than 1, and how
much more than 1= 0.054 more than 1)
So profit % will be 0.054×100= 5.45% or 5(5/11).
Always use SP/CP for profit loss, If the value is less than 1, then find how much less than 1, it will be a loss.
= 5800/(4700+800)
= 1.0545( it's profit because
Value of SP/CP = more.
than 1, and how
much more than 1= 0.054 more than 1)
So profit % will be 0.054×100= 5.45% or 5(5/11).
Always use SP/CP for profit loss, If the value is less than 1, then find how much less than 1, it will be a loss.
(24)
Zunaid said:
3 years ago
Thanks all for the crystal clear explanation.
(9)
Anchal said:
3 years ago
C.p-4700 + 800 = 5500.
Sp- 5800,
Profit:
sp-cp.
5800-5500.
300*100/5500=60/11.
Sp- 5800,
Profit:
sp-cp.
5800-5500.
300*100/5500=60/11.
(16)
Kushi said:
3 years ago
Now brought 4700.
Spends 800,
Sells 5800.
4700+800 = 5500.
5500 divided by 5800 * 100.
You will get 5 5 by 11.
Spends 800,
Sells 5800.
4700+800 = 5500.
5500 divided by 5800 * 100.
You will get 5 5 by 11.
(7)
Pavi said:
3 years ago
Thanks for the good explanation.
(6)
Sagar patil said:
4 years ago
It is 300/5500*100.
i.e 30000/5500,
i.e 60/11.
The formula is
Quotient : Remainder/Dividend.
Then you will get 5(5/11).
i.e 30000/5500,
i.e 60/11.
The formula is
Quotient : Remainder/Dividend.
Then you will get 5(5/11).
(12)
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