Aptitude - Alligation or Mixture - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Alligation or Mixture - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
10.
In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16
% on selling the mixture at cost price?
% on selling the mixture at cost price?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. of 1 litre milk be Re. 1.
| S.P. of 1 litre of mixture = Re.1, Gain = | 50 | %. |
| 3 |
 C.P. of 1 litre of mixture = |
 |
100 x | 3 | x 1 |  |
= | 6 |
| 350 | 7 |
By the rule of alligation, we have:
| C.P. of 1 litre of water C.P. of 1 litre of milk | |||||
| 0 | Mean Price
| Re. 1 | |||
|
|
||||
| Ratio of water and milk = |
1 | : | 6 | = 1 : 6. |
| 7 | 7 |
Discussion:
51 comments Page 3 of 6.
Princy said:
9 years ago
How the selling price of one-litre mixture is 1 re?
(1)
Akshay said:
9 years ago
Simple method.
% always denote to 100.
So, 50/3 : 100 = 1/6.
% always denote to 100.
So, 50/3 : 100 = 1/6.
SUMIT VERMA said:
9 years ago
Let the cost price be Rs.100.
Since gain is Rs. 50/3.
So S.P is 100 + 50/3 = Rs.350/3.
Hence, Ratio = S.P - C.P/C.P, (350/3 - 100)/100 = 1/6.
Since gain is Rs. 50/3.
So S.P is 100 + 50/3 = Rs.350/3.
Hence, Ratio = S.P - C.P/C.P, (350/3 - 100)/100 = 1/6.
Tiger karim said:
9 years ago
According to question,
Millk = 100 ,
Water = 50/3,
Ratio = 50/3 : 100 = 1 : 6.
Millk = 100 ,
Water = 50/3,
Ratio = 50/3 : 100 = 1 : 6.
Rajeshdharamdasani said:
9 years ago
Whey they have assumed C.P of water is 0?
Pidu said:
9 years ago
They have used C.P. formula.
C.P = (100/(100 + gain%) * S.P).
So, (100/(100 + (50/3)) * 1).
100 * (3/350) * 1.
C.P = (100/(100 + gain%) * S.P).
So, (100/(100 + (50/3)) * 1).
100 * (3/350) * 1.
Pratap said:
9 years ago
How is it 3/350 on calculating C.P? Please explain.
ABHISHEK PRABHAKAR said:
10 years ago
Let 100 liter milk cost Rs. 100 (it means one liter milk cost Rs. 1).
Since profit should be 50/3 percent, therefore total mixture should be (100+50/3) liter. So that it can give a profit of 50/3 percent. Hence we have to mix 50/3 liter of water in milk.
Therefore the ratio of water to milk in the mixture is (50/3) /100 = 1/6 answer.
Since profit should be 50/3 percent, therefore total mixture should be (100+50/3) liter. So that it can give a profit of 50/3 percent. Hence we have to mix 50/3 liter of water in milk.
Therefore the ratio of water to milk in the mixture is (50/3) /100 = 1/6 answer.
Rahul said:
10 years ago
How it is equal to fraction value?
Ana said:
1 decade ago
I can give a short cut and very simple method.
Cost of water is taken to b zero if it had some cost then the person would not have mixed the water so cost of water is zero.
So in such question where cost of one ingredient is zero and selling price =cost price the ratio is simply equal to the fractional value of gain%. You can check it on your own.
Cost of water is taken to b zero if it had some cost then the person would not have mixed the water so cost of water is zero.
So in such question where cost of one ingredient is zero and selling price =cost price the ratio is simply equal to the fractional value of gain%. You can check it on your own.
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