Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Rs. 375
Rs. 400
Rs. 600
Rs. 800
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C's 1 day's work = 1 - 1 + 1 = 1 - 7 = 1 .
3 6 8 3 24 24

A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 1 : 1 : 1 = 4 : 3 : 1.
6 8 24

C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. 3 x 1 x 3200 = Rs. 400.
24

Discussion:
184 comments Page 1 of 19.

Satya Ranjan Sethy said:   4 days ago
Work done by A in one day = 1/6.
Like this of B = 1/8.
The work done by both A and B is 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24.
3 days work of A and B is 3 * 7/24 = 7/8.

A and B complete 7 parts (for 7/8) of the total work (as we consider the total work is 1),
So, C does 1/8 (which means 1 part of the total work)
So 3200/8 = 400(for each part),
c will be paid 400.
(1)

Ahin said:   6 days ago
The easiest solution to this question is to find the efficiency of a + b + c - (a + b). You would be getting 1 as c's efficiency.

So, the total work done by a + b + c is 8.
i.e. 1 is divided by 8 * 3200. And You'll get 400.
(1)

Ganesh said:   1 month ago
Here A work is 6days.
B work is 8 days
Together combined work is 3 days right?
So now total work =LCM of 6, 8, 3 = 24.
So A efficiency or one day of work is 24/6 = 4,
B's efficiency or one day work is 24/8 = 3,
A + B + Cs one day work is 24/3 = 8.
So, we want only C one day of work.
We know;
A + B + C = 8, also know that A is 4, B is 3.
4 + 3 + C = 8,
C = 8 - 7 C's one day work is 1.

Now the total money is 32000.
A + B + C together one day work is 8(see above).
So 32000/8=400.
Here, A part is 4, so 4 * 400 = 1600,
B part is 3, so 3 * 400 = 1200,
C part is 1 * 400 = 400
Asking C part,
So, C get 400rupees.
(6)

Keerthana S said:   2 months ago
See,

I hope everyone gets dout on how 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4 : 3 : 1.
So first consider this 1/6:1/8:1/24
LCM will be 24 so, then
1/6 × 24 = 4.
1/8 × 24 = 3.
1/24 × 24 = 1.
So, it's 4 : 3 : 1.
(5)

Deep said:   2 months ago
Thanks everyone for explaining the answer.
(3)

Ravi said:   12 months ago
A + B + C = 1/3
1/6 + 1/8 + 1/x = 1/3.
(4+3)/24 + 1/x = 1/3.
1/x = 1/3 - 7/24
1/x = (8-7)/24
1/x = 1/24.

Therefore x= 24.
Now 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24.
4/24 : 3/24 : 1/24,
4 : 3 : 1.
So C share is 1 total share 8
C's share = (3200/8 ) *1,
= 400*1,
= 400.
(40)

Vandana said:   1 year ago
Here the ratios of 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 do not equal the ratios 4:3:1 as shown in the explanation, there seems to be a mistake in the calculation, it comes to values 3 : 4 : 12.
(18)

Kartik said:   1 year ago
The Lcm of 6 and 8 is 24(total work) the A = 4 and B = 3.
Given 3(A+B+C) = 24.
By substituting A and B values C = 1.
The ratios of A, B, C are 4:3:1.
C's share is = 1/8 × 3200 = 400.
(66)

Keerthu said:   1 year ago
A + B + C = 1/3.
A + B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24,
C = 1/3 - 7/24 = 1/24,
C's share 3 days of work = 3 * 3200/24 = 400.
(68)

Keerthana said:   2 years ago
1/6 + 1/8 + 1/C = 1/3.
1/C = 7/24-1/3.
1/C = 1/24( 1 day's work of C).
3 days work of C-->3/24= 1/8.
1/8 x 3200 = ₹400.
(49)


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