### Discussion :: Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No.5)

Vishnu said: (Jul 30, 2010) | |

How did you calculated the wages ratio? |

Dhanush said: (Aug 13, 2010) | |

A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = =A's 1 day's work:B's 1 day's work:C's 1 day's work =1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 =4 : 3 : 1.(multiple by 24..:1/6*24 : 1/8*24 : 1/24*24) |

Shaju said: (Sep 11, 2010) | |

Can anyone help me with the last step? If we need to calculate (3 x 1/24 x 3200) then what was the use of finding the ratio. |

Chethu said: (Sep 30, 2010) | |

Good Question Shaju, With the ratio you would get to know the share of A, B and C. A:B:C = 4:3:1 So the wages can be calculated easily (4*400:3*400:1*400) which is equal to (1600:1200:400) if we add it, it would give us the total amount if 3200. |

Shyam said: (Oct 3, 2010) | |

It is simple, A's share is (4/8)*3200 B's share is (3/8)*3200 C's share is (1/8)*3200 |

Harish said: (Oct 25, 2010) | |

1/6:1/8:1/24==4:3:1 how its came give me the logic |

Ravi said: (Nov 4, 2010) | |

The highest among the denominators is 24..so multiply the ratios by 24.. 24/6:24/8:24/24 4:3:1 |

Sandy said: (Nov 10, 2010) | |

From where did 1/24 come? |

Sandy said: (Nov 17, 2010) | |

@Sandy that is c's one day work.. ok.... @dhanush has clearly explained... |

Vinita said: (Dec 8, 2010) | |

Sir pls explain me this step 1/3-7/24= 1/24 How is it? |

Guna said: (Dec 10, 2010) | |

@Vinita Its simple L.C.M 24-21/24*3=3/72=1/24... |

Siddharth said: (Jan 21, 2011) | |

IN 3*1/24*3200...FROM WHERE 3 IS COME |

Sahil Kapoor said: (Jan 21, 2011) | |

I agree with siddharth, either the 3 should be removed or they should mention that A,B,C charge Rs 3200 "PER DAY" |

Aatif said: (Feb 2, 2011) | |

1/24 is the work done by C in one day. For three days "3" is used. |

Jagjeet said: (Feb 10, 2011) | |

I agree in question they should mention 3200 per day. |

Shashank A said: (Apr 19, 2011) | |

The last step of calculating 3*1/24*3200 is wrong as C would alone earn 3200 that way at the end of 24 days..:).The idea should be 1 part of 8 parts earned amongst A ,B and C is earned by C.Hence its 400.... |

Vandhanasuberwal said: (May 7, 2011) | |

We can solve it as 1/8 multiply 3200. |

Jeevana said: (May 12, 2011) | |

Can anyone help me with the first step? why do like that only |

Krishna said: (May 18, 2011) | |

See jeevana , a,b,c can complete work in 3 days so a,b,c can complete a work in 1 days=1/3...........(1) a and b can complete work in 1 day=1/6+1/8=7/24works.....(2) c's one day works =a's and b's one day works is subtracted from a b c one days work that is(1-2) So 1/24 works done by c c 's 3 days work is 3/24=1/8 so c's share is = 3200/8=400 |

Anil said: (Jun 8, 2011) | |

Wages is necessary for this question ? |

Kiran said: (Jun 17, 2011) | |

In the end, why we have multiplied 3200 with C's 3 day work whereas it is the salary of both A and B ? |

Satheesh said: (Jun 24, 2011) | |

What is the need to multiply 3 in last step = 3*1/24*3200 (since we already subtracted (1/3) ? |

Balaram said: (Jun 28, 2011) | |

Hi Satheesh. From the step 1/c+1/6+1/8=1/3, you can get the work that can be done by the c in one day. So, the part of work that is contributed by c in 3 days, is 3*work done in one day. Hence, the step 3*1/24 is the total work done by c in 3 days. Now, the wage that has to come to c is just multiplication of his work to the total wage for the whole work. Hope, you would get the logic now. |

Ramya said: (Jul 6, 2011) | |

Why we have to multiply with 24 to get the ratio as 4:3:1? |

Venky said: (Jul 19, 2011) | |

No need to calculate wages ratios. C's part of work for 1 day is 1/24. So the contribution for 3 days is 3/24. As per contribution his share will be 3/24*3200=400. |

Arnab said: (Jul 22, 2011) | |

A lot simpler method -- A does 1/6 in 1 day.. B does 1/8 in one day..So they both do (1/6+1/8=7/24)in 1 day.. Hence they will finish the work in 24/7 days.. they get paid 3200 for 24/7 units of work..hence they'll be paid 3200*7/24 for 1 units of work..which is equal to 2800/3.. now A and B were finishing it in 24/7 days but on C's help they do it in 3 days..hence they are saved 24/7-3 units of work which is equal to 3/7 units of works and C will be paid for this..now 1 unit's pay was 2800/3..hence 3/7 units pay is (2800*3)/(3*7) = 400!! |

Anandhakumar said: (Jul 29, 2011) | |

Let us take total work as the L.C.M of 6,8,3 i.e 24. So A's per day work is 24/6=4, B's =24/8=3, a+b+c's=24/3=8. So C's Ability is= 8-(4+3)=1 ie(a+b+c-a-b). So the amount has to be divided into 4:3:1 So C's share is (1/8)*3200=400 |

Preeti2009_Delhi@Yahoo.Com said: (Aug 2, 2011) | |

If both a and b work together on the single piece than in how many days they will complete their work and how? |

Pradeep Koney said: (Aug 5, 2011) | |

No need to do all this hard work dudes...... A works 6days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/6=1600/3 B works 8days and gets 3200,i.e.,for one day=3200/8=400 A&B&C worked for 3days That is A gets 3*1600/3 for 3days=1600 B gets 3*400 for 3days=1200 A+B wages=1600+1200=2800 C wages=3200-2800=400 |

Kavitha said: (Aug 9, 2011) | |

One day work of A+B = (1/6)+(1/8) = 7/24 3 days work of A+B = (7/24)*3 = 7/8 Total amount=3200 3 days work of A+B with the amount 3200 = (7/8)*3200 = 2800 (A+B)'s share is 2800 C's share is = 3200-2800 = 400. |

Kartik M. said: (Aug 9, 2011) | |

@pradeep koney Your method is nice. |

Aitya said: (Aug 18, 2011) | |

A very simple method is :- The total complition money of the job is 3200. A completes the job in 6 day's.. So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33 B completes the job in 8 day's.. So his per day fees is 3200/8=400 a,b & c complets the job in 3days.. (3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200 (3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200 3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200) =3200-2800 C' full fee of the work is=400 |

Ramkumar said: (Sep 18, 2011) | |

Pradeep Koney method is easily understood. |

Naman said: (Oct 6, 2011) | |

This is very easy to understand ..... in last line.... there wages is 4:3:1 ....so wage of c is.. ===1*3200/(4+3+1)====3200/8===400 |

Parvatraj said: (Oct 12, 2011) | |

According the quetion, A can do in 1 day 1/6 work. in 3 days 3/6 work. B can do in 1 day 1/8 work. in 3 days 3/8 work. So C has done (1-(3/6+3/8)) work. That is 1/8 work. So he has to get 1/3 of total amount. i.e, 3200/8=400 rs. But the calculation they have given is wrong. but answer is right unfortunately. |

Sekhar said: (Nov 6, 2011) | |

Pradeep koni explains very very good. |

Sri said: (Nov 14, 2011) | |

@Pradeep koney. Thanks Pradeep your method is easy. |

Ess said: (Dec 22, 2011) | |

Why you are multiplying 3200 in c's 3 day work ? |

Prasad said: (Feb 5, 2012) | |

C's share is=[1/(4+3+1)]*3200; Is it ok to solve by this method |

Tabish said: (Feb 18, 2012) | |

Why multiplied by 24 to the A,B,C's one day work as it is the work completed by C in one day? |

Shro said: (Feb 20, 2012) | |

Why to subtract C's work from (A and B) in 1st step? |

Adithya said: (Mar 26, 2012) | |

A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 4 : 3 : 1. so total wages(4+3+1) 3200/8 =400 for A = 400*4 = 1600....B = 3*400=1200. for C =400 |

Muhammad Akmal said: (May 28, 2012) | |

Please explain that how (1/3 -7/24) = C's one day's work? What is the logic? |

Chandana said: (Jul 23, 2012) | |

C's one days work is 1/3. A and B's one day work is 1/6 and 1/8 respectively. Now to know the amount of work done by C, we have to calculate the work done by A and B, i.e., 1/6 + 1/8= 7/24, now we have to calculate how much work C alone has alone done so, 1/3 - 7/24 take LMC you will get 8-7 / 24 you will get 1/24 And now 3*1/2*3200 = 400. |

Srisha said: (Jul 30, 2012) | |

A very simple method is : The total completion money of the job is 3200. A completes the job in 6 day's. So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33 B completes the job in 8 day's. So his per day fees is 3200/8=400 a,b & c completes the job in 3days. (3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200 (3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200 3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)=3200-2800 C's full fee of the work is = 400 |

Rahul Chourasia said: (Aug 19, 2012) | |

Wages ratio is not important short method is c work in 3 days a & b money =3200 c work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3-(1/6+1/8)) last calculation is 3*1/24*3200 ans is 400 |

Ayan Sett said: (Sep 3, 2012) | |

@pradeep koney thanks.. |

Bitu said: (Feb 12, 2013) | |

According to the question 3200.00 was given to be the amount taken by both A & B collectively for completing the work together. Then how could it be treated as the total amount obtained by the three to be distributed among. |

Ranjeet Singh said: (Mar 12, 2013) | |

Because lastly A, B, C are working together for completing the work and we all know that no one work for free of cost so we will have to involve C in 3200 distribution. Initially only A and B working that's why 3200 distributed between A and B. |

Maruthupandian said: (Mar 28, 2013) | |

@Arnab. In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone? won't it be (3-24/7) ? because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C. |

Somesh said: (Apr 12, 2013) | |

If one person A takes "x" days to complete a work alone and another person B takes "y" days to complete the same work alone, then the number days both A and B take working together is : x y/ (x + y). I hope you will surely understand what you have to do. |

Sangeethavimalraj said: (Apr 23, 2013) | |

Total amount is 3200, Ratio 4:3:1, 4*x+3*x+1*x = 3200. 8x = 3200. x = 400. |

Vinod Anand said: (May 22, 2013) | |

If A=1/6 ,B=1/8 and A+B+C = 1/3 ----(1). A+B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24. Put the value of A+B in Eq.(1). Than C = 1/8 - 7/24 = 1/24. The Value of C' is 1/24. Now the Ratio of A:B:C =1/6:1/8:1/24 (The L.C.M Of 1/6+1/8+1/24 is 24) A:B:C =4:3:1. Than Amt.is Rs.3200. So the C' will be paid = 3200 X 1/8. = Rs. 400.00 Answer. |

Hema said: (Jul 2, 2013) | |

Yes, I agree that amount 3200 in the question is not clearly mentioned. Is that for per day? |

B.Indirasouajyaan said: (Jul 8, 2013) | |

The ratio obtained is 4:3:1. Then why did you multiply 3*1/24*3200? we should not multiply with 1? |

Dave said: (Jul 11, 2013) | |

Actually, havent got the ratios we could have also found proportionate share of their wages as follows: 4+3+1 = 8. Hence c's wage would've been 1/8*3200 = 400. |

Seema Duhan said: (Jul 14, 2013) | |

take LCM of A and B work, then get: A+B=7/24. WHERE: A+B+C = 1/3 (given). So 7/24+C=1/3. C=1/24. With the ratio you would get to know the share of A, B and C. Now the Ratio of A:B:C =1/6:1/8:1/24 (The L.C.M Of 1/6+1/8+1/24 is 24) A:B:C =4:3:1. So the wages can be calculated easily (4*400:3*400:1*400) which is equal to (1600:1200:400) if we add it, it would give us the total amount if 3200. It is simple, A's share is (4/8)*3200. B's share is (3/8)*3200. C's share is (1/8)*3200 (because 4+3+1=8). |

Soumya said: (Aug 24, 2013) | |

Can we solve the problem without calculating ratio? |

Vikas said: (Aug 28, 2013) | |

No need to calculate the ratios its just wast of time. |

Prince Dubey said: (Aug 30, 2013) | |

A, B, C can complete work in 3 days. so A, B, C can complete a work in 1 days = 1/3...........(1). A and B can complete work in 1 day = 1/6+1/8 = 7/24 works.....(2). C's one day works = A's and B's one day works is subtracted from A B C one days work that is(1-2). So 1/24 works done by C. C 's 3 days work is 3/24 = 1/8. So C's share is = 3200/8 = 400. |

Prince Dubey said: (Aug 30, 2013) | |

Wages ratio is not important short method is. C work in 3 days. A & B money = 3200. C work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3- (1/6+1/8) ). Last calculation is 3*1/24*3200. Answer is 400. |

Karun said: (Sep 10, 2013) | |

A efficiency 16.66. B efficiency 12.50. So total work of A+B is 29.16 remaining 70.84. So 70.84/3 = 24(C efficency ) |

Satyakrishna said: (Sep 16, 2013) | |

Is there any shortcut method to find this, by directly substituting the values? |

Vinod Rathod said: (Sep 23, 2013) | |

Leave every method go for simple method. A alone can do the work in 6 days. B alone can do the work 8 days. They took the work at Rs 3200 with the help of C. Lets take a per day work of A at Rs x. Total = 3200/6 days. = 533.33*3 days. A = 1599.99 = 1600. B = 3200/8 days. = 400 * 3 days. B = 1200. A+B = 1600+1200 = 2800 And left 3200 -2800 = 400. C = 400 Answer. |

Rohan said: (Oct 9, 2013) | |

1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 and ratio 4:3:1. Answer above says highest number is 24 so multiply all by 24... is that the logic? |

Alby said: (Oct 24, 2013) | |

From the ratio itself we can calculate. A's wages:B's wages:C's wages = 4:3:1. Then to calculate C's wages from 3200 = 1/(4+3+1) * 3200. = 1/8 of 3200. = 400. |

Sai Mounika said: (Dec 30, 2013) | |

Why we are multiply all by 24? I think C's 1 day work is 1/24 so we have to multiply all by 24 in order to get the 3 days work. Am I right? |

Vivek Jasele said: (May 9, 2014) | |

4:3:1. C share will be simply as already we have count for 3 days work. 1/4+3+1*32000 = 1/8*3200 = 400. Answer. |

Vinnu said: (Jun 9, 2014) | |

See from the problem we can calculate c's 1 day work = 1/24. It means he can complete work in 24 days. So for calculating wage of c we can say for 24 days he is to be paid 3200. But for 3 days he is to be paid? Cross multiply we get (3*3200) /24=400. Its easy. |

Hemanth said: (Jul 1, 2014) | |

The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs.3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs.3200 individually. Correct me if im wrong. |

Kumar said: (Aug 21, 2014) | |

The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs.3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs.3200 individually. Correct me if I'm wrong. |

Nisha said: (Sep 7, 2014) | |

Ya The question is actually not clear. Its should say A, B and C undertook the work for Rs. 3200. The questions as it is stated may imply that A and B took Rs. 3200 individually. Correct me if I'm wrong. |

Divakar said: (Sep 22, 2014) | |

Last step can be written as C's share = 1/8*3200 = 400. |

Dumbass said: (Oct 20, 2014) | |

Please help. Where did the number 8 come from in 1/8*3200 = 400? |

Pavithra said: (Nov 5, 2014) | |

Can anyone say how the 1/6+1/8 comes as 7/24? I need the clear explanation of the solution. |

Sapna said: (Nov 18, 2014) | |

1/6+1/8 = 8+6/48. = 14/48. = 7/24. |

Uday said: (Nov 18, 2014) | |

Suppose if we want A share, then. A/(A+B+C)*3200 = 4/(4+3+1)*3200. = 4/8*3200. A's share = 1600. B's share = B/(A+B+C) = 3/(4+3+1)*3200. = 3/8*3200. B's share = 1200. Similarly C's share = 400. Therefore Sum of shares of A+B+C = 3200. |

Kanmani Roja said: (Dec 28, 2014) | |

Another method to solve this problem can be: A's 1 day work = 1/6. B's 1 day work = 1/8. Both combined (1 day work) = 1/6+1/8 = 7/24 work. Hence both together completed in = 24/7 days. Therefore in 24/7 days = 3200 wages. C's working days = 3-24/7 = 3/7. Hence for 24/7 days = 3200 wages. C's 3/7 days = x wages. To find x: 24/7(x) = 3/7*3200. x = 400. C should be paid by Rs.400. |

Anjana S Babu said: (Feb 15, 2015) | |

A's 1 day work = 1/6. B's 1 day work = 1/8. C's 1 day work = 1/3. We can calculate both A+B = 1/6+1/8. = 8+6/48 = 14/48. = 7/24. Then C's 1 day work = 1/3-7/24. = 24-21/72 = 3/72. = 1/24. |

Ram said: (Feb 23, 2015) | |

I think this is a wrong question. In it the information is not given that for how many days A and B are given 3200? |

Yuvraj said: (Mar 15, 2015) | |

How to find A And B share? |

Danish said: (Mar 26, 2015) | |

How do you guys know that C's work ratio is 24? Please help. |

Mouni said: (Mar 28, 2015) | |

Hi @Danish. In sum we have total work of a, b, c so we subtract both a and b work from total work then we will get c work that is 1/24 ok. And then to find ratio of wages we multiply with 24 why because the LCM of a, b, c is 24. So we multiply with 24 and get ratios of all. |

Archita said: (Apr 15, 2015) | |

A 1 day work = 1/6. B 1 day work = 1/8. (A + B + C) complete work in = 3 days. A + B + C one day work = 1/3. 1/6 + 1/8 + (C one day work) = 1/3. C one day work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/24. Total money = 3200. So A, B, C share in the whole money is depend on their work ratio. A work : B work : C work = 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24. Or 4 : 3 : 1 (multiply 24 in each). A share = (4/8) *3200 = 1600. B share = (3/8) * 3200 = 1200. C share = (1/8) *3200 = 400. |

Sateesh Vudum said: (Jun 12, 2015) | |

Find the Ratio among the A, B, C. Add the ratios = 4:3:1 = 8. 8-32000. 1-? = 3200/8 = 400's wages. |

Chandni said: (Jun 25, 2015) | |

Any one help me in above question we take difference of day like 3-1 equal to 2 than why we not take difference of day 8-6 equal to 2 please help me. |

Soumyajit Roy said: (Jun 29, 2015) | |

A's work of 1 day = 1/6 B's work of 1 day = 1/8. A's work of 3 days = 1/6*3 = 1/2 B's work of 3 days = 1/8*3 = 3/8. (A+B) 's work of 3 days (1/2 + 3/8) = 7/8. So the left work in 3 days is done by C. That is, (1 - 7/8) = 1/8. Now A, B, C share in the whole money is depend on their work ratio. So C's Share is 1/8*3200 = 400. |

Raj Pathak said: (Aug 5, 2015) | |

Hope this will change. A, B and C total 3200 not like A and B as mentioned above. |

Prithivi said: (Aug 7, 2015) | |

Can any one say how was the ratio can be calculated those three a, b, c? |

Rajesh said: (Aug 31, 2015) | |

No of work days done by a, b, c. |

Thomas said: (Sep 6, 2015) | |

C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. 3x1x3200 = Rs. 400. Seems this step has confused everyone. Ideally we should go like this: C share is 1 from (4:3:1). So the share from total amount is C'share 1/4+3+1 = 1/8. C's Share of Money 1/8*3200 = 400. |

Yash said: (Sep 26, 2015) | |

I didn't understand the step. How they multiplied wage of C with 3? |

Sai Vinay said: (Sep 27, 2015) | |

A's work = 1/6. B's work = 1/8. A+B+C = 1/3 per day. C = (A+B+C) - (A+B). = (1/3) - ((1/6)+(1/8)). = 1/24. So A:B:C = 1/6:1/8:1/24. LCM = 24. Ratio = 4:3:1. T.P = (4+3+1) = 8. 8 parts--------------------->3200. Then C's 1 part---------------------->? -->8*x = 3200*1. x = 3200/8. C money = 400. |

Suba said: (Dec 17, 2015) | |

There's no need of multiplying the number with 3. We can do it in other way as well. As @Sai vinay said, we can consider that part. |

Pradeep Sharma said: (Dec 21, 2015) | |

Thanks a lot Sapna. You have cleared my confusion about 7/24. |

Vishal Raika said: (Jan 9, 2016) | |

C's 1 day work = 1/3-{1/6+1/8} = 1/24. A:B:C = 1/6*24:1/8*24:1/24*24. = 4:3:1. C share = Rs. [Day he worked*Part of work he did*Total share]. = Rs. {3*1/24*3200}. |

Ravi Kumar said: (Jan 21, 2016) | |

From given: A+B+C can complete a work in 3 days and they will get amount 3200 for 3 days. So A, B, C work for 3 days. A one day work is 1/6. B one day work is 1/8. C one day work is, we have to find out. A+B+C one day work is 1/3 because A, B, C complete a work in 3 days. So A+B+C one day work = 1/6+1/8+1/C. 1/3 = 1/6+1/8+1/C. 1/C = 1/24 so "C" one day work is 1/24. A's 3 days work is 3/6 and he will get the amount is 3/6*3200 = 1600. B's 3 day work is 3/8 and he will get 3/8*3200 = 1200. C's 3 day work is 3/24 and he will get 3/24*3200 = 400. |

John said: (Feb 1, 2016) | |

The last portion can also be explained as: Since the ratio of the wages of A:B:C came as 4:3:1 respectively, it's obvious that the proportion of C is 1/8 i.e. 1/4+3+1 = 1/8. Since the total amount is Rs. 3200, the portion or the amount received by C is 1/8 X 3200 = 400. Similarly portions of other members are: A's 4/8 X 3200 = 1600. B's 3/8 X 3200 = 1200. |

Ankur said: (Feb 12, 2016) | |

If 3200 is taken for the complete the entire job, why did we multiply C's share i.e. 1/24 by 3? Because 3200 is not a per day income, it's a fixed income. |

Renju K S said: (Feb 15, 2016) | |

For what purpose we need to find ratio of wages for this question? |

Aakash said: (Feb 21, 2016) | |

Why we required for ratio of wages in this question? |

Bhabani said: (Mar 18, 2016) | |

You can directly write there 4x+3x+x=3200, then you also got x=400. |

Samrat said: (Apr 15, 2016) | |

3*1/24*3200. How it come, normally we add all the ratio and the ratio is 4:3:1. How I find the share of A and B? |

Sunil said: (Jun 17, 2016) | |

Please explain from where 1/24 came? |

Ankit said: (Jul 2, 2016) | |

A finish work in day = 6, B finish work in day = 8, LCM = 24. A doing work in one day = 24/6 = 4, B doing work in one day = 24/8 = 3, If both are work together, so one day work = 4 + 3 = 7. So, one day work = 7/24, In three day = 3(7/24), A and B combined rupee = 21/24*3200 = 2800. So, C = 3200 - 2800 = 400. Please suggest me, this is true or wrong. |

Rajnish Jha said: (Jul 20, 2016) | |

Given, A finish work in 6 days. B finish work in 8 days. Then C's 1 day work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/24. Then ratio of a : b : c = 4 : 3 : 1. Then, C share for 3 days = 3 * 1/24 * 3200 = 400-> answer. |

Naveen said: (Jul 31, 2016) | |

@Pradeep, your method is really superb and very easy to understand. Thank you so much. |

Vasanth said: (Aug 16, 2016) | |

Another solution : By ratio their wages 4 : 3 : 1, totally 8parts (i.e) 4 + 3 + 1 = 8. athe value of one part = 3200/8 = 400. C part is one so the answer is 400 rupees. |

Nithya said: (Sep 1, 2016) | |

Your method is good % easy, Thanks @Pradeep Koney. |

Bharath said: (Oct 8, 2016) | |

NO need of looking for ratios. Just understand the question and do logically. A = 6days B = 8days C = ? A + B + C = 3200rupees. Now we need to find how many days would C take to complete his work. 1/6 + 1/8+ C = 1/3. C = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8). 1/3 - (7/24). 1/24. So, here we found that C can do 1/24 work in one day, now in 3 days C can do: 3 * 1/24 = 1/8. Now 1/8 * 3200 gives us the answer. So, 1/8 * 3200 = 400. |

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